Opinion nr 06/2017

EUROPEAN COMMISSION Brussels, XXX […](2017) XXX draft ANNEX to EASA Opinion No 06/2017 COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No …/.. of XXX amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards loss of control prevention and recovery training […] EN EN  COMMISSION REGULATION (EU) No …/.. of XXX amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards loss of control prevention and recovery training […] THE EUROPEAN COMMISSION, Having regard to the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union, Having regard to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 (1) of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC, and in particular Article 7 thereof, Whereas: (1) After a number of accidents related to the loss of control in flight, the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) in 2014 amended Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention on Personnel Licensing to introduce provisions for upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) during training for the multi-crew pilot licence (MPL) and for multi-pilot aeroplane type ratings. The new additional training elements aim at improving pilot competencies needed for both prevention of and recovery from aeroplane upsets that can lead to a loss of control and, eventually, to a fatal accident. (2) Annex I (Part-FCL) to Regulation (EU) No 1178/20112 should therefore be amended in order to reflect these amendments to Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention in the European regulatory framework, and in order to enhance pilot training in relation to UPRT in general. (3) When reflecting these changes in Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention in the EU regulatory framework by updating the rules on pilot training, integration of UPRT at various stages of a professional pilot’s career should be sought, taking into consideration the privileges of the particular pilot licence and the associated safety risks. The objective of this approach is to ensure a both well-developed and well- maintained competence of professional pilots in upset prevention and recovery. General UPRT elements should therefore become a mandatory part of the MPL training course and the integrated training course for airline transport pilots for aeroplanes (ATP(A)). Additionally, a dedicated UPRT course comprising UPRT- related air exercises in an aeroplane should become part of the MPL and the ATP(A) training courses in order to allow pilots to develop advanced competencies in upset prevention and recovery. This course should also form a prerequisite for training courses for ratings for those class and type ratings mainly used for commercial air transport. Finally, such class and type rating training courses should also comprise UPRT elements related to the specificities of the relevant class or type. (1) OJ L 79, 19.03.2008, p. 1. (2) Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 311, 25.11.2011, p. 1) EN 2 EN  (4) With regard to the introduction of the new course related to the development of advanced pilot competencies in upset prevention and recovery, the requirements for instructor certificates should be revised in order to ensure that instructors instructing on this course are appropriately qualified. (5) While it is in the interest of aviation safety that the new UPRT elements should be implemented as soon as possible, transitional provisions should be put in place to allow training courses that have started before these UPRT-related amendments to the requirements on pilot training become effective can be completed without any further adaption, taking into consideration that pilots flying for commercial air operators in terms of Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/20123 need to undergo regular operator recurrent training which already today contains UPRT elements. Additionally, pilot training organisations should be given a transitional period at the end of which they will need to have their training programmes adapted to comply with the new URPT requirements. After that date, all relevant training courses should be conducted in accordance with the new UPRT requirements. (6) The European Aviation Safety Agency prepared draft implementing rules and submitted them with Opinion No xx/2017 to the European Commission in accordance with Article 19(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. (7) The measures provided for in this Regulation are in accordance with the opinion of the committee established by Article 65 of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008, HAS ADOPTED THIS REGULATION: Article 1 Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 is amended as follows: Article 4b Upset prevention and recovery training (1) After Article 4a, the following Article 4b is inserted 1. Pilots shall only be issued with a CPL(A), an ATPL(A), an MPL or their first class or type rating for: (a) single-pilot aeroplanes, when operated in multi-pilot operation; (b) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; or (c) multi-pilot aeroplanes in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) after completion of a training course including upset recovery training as of 8 April 2022 2. Students completing an integrated ATP(A) training course or an MPL training course in accordance with Part-FCL at an ATO not yet having adapted its training programme in accordance with Article 10a paragraph 24 shall be given full credit for the purpose of issuing the licence provided that the training and testing were completed by 8 April 2022 at the latest. (3) Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to air operations pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 296, 25.10.2012, p. 1). (4) Taking into consideration that the current paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 are deleted with the amending regulation implementing Part-DTO. EN 3 EN  3. Students completing a training course for their first class or type rating for one of the aircraft referred to in paragraph 1 in accordance with Part-FCL at an ATO not yet having adapted its training programme in accordance with Article 10a paragraph 2 shall be given full credit for the purpose of issuing the rating provided that the skill test was completed in compliance with point (c)(2) of FCL.725 Annex I (Part-FCL) to this Regulation. 4. Applicants for an ATPL or MPL or for a class or type rating as referred to in paragraph 1 who completed upset prevention and recovery training in accordance with national requirements prior to 8 April 2019 may receive credits for complying with the requirements of this Regulation. 5. The credit given to applicants shall be determined by the competent authority to which the pilot applies on the basis of a recommendation from an approved training organisation. (2) In Article 10a, the following paragraph 25 is inserted: 2. Training organisations as referred to in paragraph 1 shall amend their training programmes in order to comply with the amendments to this Regulation introduced with Regulation XXXXX no later than 8 April 2019. (3) Annex I to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 is amended in accordance with the Annex to this Regulation. Article 3 This Regulation shall enter into force on the twentieth day following that of its publication in the Official Journal of the European Union. It shall apply from 8 April 2018. This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in all Member States. This Regulation shall be binding in its entirety and directly applicable in the Member States in accordance with the Treaties. Done at Brussels, For the Commission The President (5) Taking into consideration that the current paragraphs 2, 3 and 4 are deleted with the amending regulation implementing Part-DTO. EN 4 EN European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 Loss of control prevention and recovery training RELATED NPA/CRD 2015-13 — RMT.0581 EXECUTIVE SUMMARY This Opinion addresses a safety issue related to aeroplane loss of control in-flight (LOC-I). The following initiatives are linked to this Opinion: various accident Safety Recommendations (SRs); European Aviation Safety Plan (EASp) safety actions; and amended International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs). This Opinion proposes to integrate upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) requirements and provisions into the EU pilot training regulatory framework. The proposed training requirements aim to provide pilots with competencies to prevent upsets or to recover from developed upsets. The main focus of the new training standards is on pilots who intend to pursue a pilot career with a commercial airline. Such pilots would likely complete either an aeroplane airline transport pilot licence(ATPL) or a multi-crew pilot licence (MPL) integrated training course, followed by training to act as a pilot in a multi-crew environment on respective aircraft. The proposed pilot training aims to deliver enhanced pilot competencies through additional upset-prevention- and upset-recovery-related theoretical knowledge (TK) and flight instruction for the commercial aeroplane licences. The newly developed advanced UPRT course, which is to be mandated as an addendum to ATP and MPL training courses and also to serve as a prerequisite prior to commencing the first type rating course in multi-pilot operations, is seen as an important step towards enhancing a commercial pilot’s resilience to the psychological and physiological aspects often associated with upset conditions. In support of the new standards, the proposals place greater emphasis on the training of instructors involved in the flight and synthetic training who are foreseen to deliver the various UPRT elements. For training towards non-commercial licences (light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), private pilot licence (PPL)), the existing training syllabi in AMC will be slightly revised to introduce UPRT elements, taking into account already existing training syllabi. The proposal is expected to increase safety and ensure harmonisation with ICAO. The entry into force date of the proposed requirements and provisions is envisaged for April 2018, followed by an 1-year transition period until April 2019. Action area: Aircraft upset in flight (LOC-I) Affected rules: Commission Regulation (EC) No 1178/2011 (Cover Regulation); Annex I (Part-FCL) and Annex VI (Part-ARA) to said Regulation Affected stakeholders: Pilots, instructors, examiners, ATOs, operators and competent authorities Driver: Safety Rulemaking group: Yes Impact assessment: Full Rulemaking Procedure: Standard 4.5.2015 1.9.2015 29.6.2017 2018/Q2 2018/Q2 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 1 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 Table of contents Table of contents 1. About this Opinion ............................................................................................................................... 3 1.1. How this Opinion was developed ..........................................................................................................3 1.2. The next steps ........................................................................................................................................3 2. In summary — why and what ............................................................................................................... 4 2.1. Why we need to change the rules — issue/rationale ............................................................................4 2.2. What we want to achieve — objectives ................................................................................................7 2.3. What are the stakeholders’ views — outcome of the consultation ......................................................8 2.3.1 General Aviation and LOC-I................................................................................................................8 2.3.2 Safety promotion rather than a regulatory solution .........................................................................9 2.3.3 Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs and associated documents, and alignment with the FAA FARs ....9 2.3.4 Clarification on the terms ‘upset prevention’, ‘upset recovery’, and ‘stall event’ ..........................10 2.3.5 UPRT delivered during the ATP, MPL, and CPL training courses .....................................................10 2.3.6 Flight instructor privileges for delivering basic UPRT during the ATP and CPL training courses, and for delivering the advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A .................................................................................12 2.3.7 Training course in FCL.915(e) for flight instructors delivering the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A ............................................................................................................................12 2.3.8 UPRT training in FSTDs including ‘stall events’ ................................................................................14 2.3.9 Instructors delivering UPRT in FSTDs ...............................................................................................15 2.3.10 UPRT during type ratings .................................................................................................................15 2.3.11 Duplication of UPRT: Mixed fleet flying and crediting between aircrew and air operations training requirements ..................................................................................................................................................16 2.3.12 Crediting provisions in Appendix 1 to Part-FCL ...............................................................................16 2.3.13 Cover regulation provisions and transitional measures ..................................................................16 2.3.14 Other items ......................................................................................................................................17 2.4. Safety Recommendations — outcome of the EASA safety assessment ..............................................19 2.5. Regulatory impact assessment (RIA)....................................................................................................29 2.5.1 Issues to be addressed.....................................................................................................................29 2.5.2 Objectives ........................................................................................................................................32 2.5.3 Overview of the comments received in the public consultation phase on the RIA ........................32 2.5.4 Policy options ...................................................................................................................................33 2.5.5 Methodology and data ....................................................................................................................37 2.5.6 Analysis of impacts ..........................................................................................................................39 2.6. How do we monitor and evaluate the rules ........................................................................................56 2.7. Overview of proposed amendments ...................................................................................................57 2.7.1 Amending the Aircrew Regulation ...................................................................................................57 2.7.2 Amendments to Annex I (Part-FCL) to the Aircrew Regulation .......................................................57 2.7.3 Amendments to Annex VI (Part-ARA) to the Aircrew Regulation ...................................................59 3. References ......................................................................................................................................... 60 3.1. Affected regulations .............................................................................................................................60 3.2. Related decisions .................................................................................................................................60 3.3. Reference documents ..........................................................................................................................60 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 2 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 1. About this Opinion 1. About this Opinion 1.1. How this Opinion was developed The European Aviation Safety EASA (EASA) developed this Opinion in line with Regulation (EC) No 216/20081 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Basic Regulation’) and the Rulemaking Procedure2. This rulemaking activity is included in the EASA 5-year Rulemaking Programme3 under RMT.0581. The scope and timescales of the task were defined in the related ToR4. The draft text of this Opinion has been developed by EASA based on the input of Rulemaking Group (RMG) RMT.0581. All interested parties were consulted through Notice of Proposed Amendment (NPA) 2015-135. In total, 405 comments were received from interested parties, including industry and competent authorities. EASA has addressed and responded to the comments received on the NPA. Said comments are presented in Comment-Response Document (CRD) 2015-136. Comments regarding the rule text have been considered for the proposed draft rule published together with this Opinion. Comments regarding the acceptable means of compliance (AMC)/guidance material (GM) will be considered in the context of the development of the final AMC/GM which will be published with an EASA ED decision at a later stage. The final text of this Opinion has been developed by EASA based on the input of Review Group (RG) RMT.0581. The major milestones of this rulemaking activity are presented on the title page. 1.2. The next steps This Opinion contains the proposed changes to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/20117 (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Aircrew Regulation’) and their potential impacts. It is submitted to the European Commission to be used as a technical basis to prepare an EU regulation. The decision amending the related AMC/GM will be published by EASA when the associated regulation is adopted by the European Commission. 1 Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008 on common rules in the field of civil aviation and establishing a European Aviation Safety Agency, and repealing Council Directive 91/670/EEC, Regulation (EC) No 1592/2002 and Directive 2004/36/EC (OJ L 79, 19.3.2008, p. 1) (http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal- content/EN/TXT/?qid=1479123914789&uri=CELEX:32008R0216). 2 EASA is bound to follow a structured rulemaking process as required by Article 52(1) of Regulation (EC) No 216/2008. Such a process has been adopted by the EASA Management Board (MB) and is referred to as the ‘Rulemaking Procedure’. See MB Decision No 18-2015 of 15 December 2015 replacing Decision 01/2012 concerning the procedure to be applied by EASA for the issuing of opinions, certification specifications and guidance material (http://www.easa.europa.eu/the-agency/management- board/decisions/easa-mb-decision-18-2015-rulemaking-procedure). 3 http://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/rulemaking-programmes 4 https://www.easa.europa.eu/system/files/dfu/ToR%20RMT.0581%20%26%20RMT.0582%20%20Issue%202_0.pdf 5 In accordance with Article 52 of the Basic Regulation and Articles 6(3) and 7 of the Rulemaking Procedure. 6 http://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/comment-response-documents 7 Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 311, 25.11.2011, p. 1) (http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1479211577681&uri=CELEX:32011R1178). TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 3 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2. In summary — why and what 2.1. Why we need to change the rules — issue/rationale Background Two Working Groups (WGs), the Loss of Control Avoidance and Recovery Training (LOCART) and the International Committee for Aviation Training in Extended Envelopes (ICATEE), have reviewed various means and solutions to mitigate LOC-I. The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) launched the ‘LOCART’ initiative, with EASA’s participation, in March 2012 and was supported by ICAO. The LOCART WG consisted of technical experts, including experts of the FAA Aviation Rulemaking Committee (FAA ARC 208). The ARC is a committee established by the FAA Administrator with intent to provide the FAA with recommendations to address the LOC-I issue. The LOCART WG provided recommendations to ICAO and the FAA. The ICATEE was initiated by the Royal Aeronautical Society (RAeS) Flight Simulation Group in June 2009 with the task to deliver a long-term strategy to reduce the rate of LOC-I accidents and incidents through enhanced UPRT. EASA participated in the ICATEE WG as well. The outcome of the work completed by both WGs was shared with the aviation community, notably with ICAO, the FAA and EASA. In general, both WGs recommend an integrated approach reinforced throughout a pilot’s career. The recommendations cover initial licensing and operator training requirements. ICAO published amendments to Annexes 1 and 6 in 2014, detailing SARPs aimed at mitigating LOC-I, by introducing the concept of UPRT. The amendments to ICAO Annex 1 mandate UPRT for the MPL and multi-pilot type rating training course. In addition, ICAO recommends UPRT in an aeroplane for the CPL training course. Furthermore, the amendments to ICAO Annex 6 contain requirements for UPRT programmes for all Commercial Air Transport (CAT) aeroplane operators. ICAO also provided further supporting guidance on UPRT in ICAO Doc 9868 ‘Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Training (PANS-TRG)’ and ICAO Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’. Moreover, ICAO published amendments to ICAO Doc 9625 ‘Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices’ containing provisions on flight simulation training device (FSTD) aerodynamic modelling, instructor operating station (IOS) and on what manoeuvres should and should not be trained in an FSTD to avoid negative transfer of training, in support of UPRT. In parallel to the LOCART, ICATEE and ICAO activities, EASA planned RMT.0581 on ‘Loss of control prevention and recovery training’ in its 2016–2020 Rulemaking Programme. In addition, EASA published various Safety Information Bulletins (SIBs) related to LOC-I to bridge the gap until the requirements and provisions developed by RMT.0581 are in place. Moreover, EASA held workshops in 2009 and 2013 with selected leading industry experts to discuss the LOC-I issue and the corresponding draft recommendations developed by ICATEE and LOCART. The outcome of the discussions served as a basis for the launch of RMT.0581 in the course of the 4th quarter of 2013. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 4 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what In the context of LOC-I, a significant amount of SRs were addressed to EASA in aircraft accident investigation reports published by the designated safety investigation authorities8, stressing the importance of this issue. After having been part of NPA 2015-13 for public consultation, these SRs have been considered by EASA in consultation with the RMG RMT.0581 during the course of the task. The outcome of the SRs assessment is provided in Section 2.4. Furthermore, LOC-I has also been a recurring issue in the EASA Annual Safety Review. In addition, the 2014–2017 EASp contains the following safety actions related to LOC-I: — AER4.8 Response to upset conditions in order to prevent LOC-I; — AER4.10 Response to unusual attitudes in order to prevent LOC-I; and — AER4.16 Flight crew are not adequately trained to respond to loss of control. During the ongoing RMT.0581 drafting activities, following an agreement between EASA, the Commission, and the EASA Committee, the Commission published Regulation (EU) 2015/4459. Through said Regulation, UPRT requirements, based on the ICAO Annex 1 amendments published in 2014, were introduced under the Part-FCL10 licensing rules. Moreover, in the aftermath of recent LOC-I-related accidents, in January 2015 EASA decided to apply an accelerated procedure to develop UPRT provisions for CAT operators. Consequently, EASA, in consultation with the RMG RMT.0581 experts, amended the AMC/GM to Part-ORO11 in order to introduce new provisions pertaining to CAT operator flight crew training12 in May 2015 with a date of entry into force in May 2016, thereby already partially addressing many of the SRs and EASp action items. Overview of the content of this Opinion Based on the aforementioned developments and activities, this Opinion addresses the remaining parts of the SRs and the EASp action items, where relevant. These parts relate to the licensing requirements of Part-FCL and the authority requirements of Part-ARA13 of the Aircrew Regulation. To ensure consistent oversight in both the aircrew and air operations domains, guidance material is planned for the authority requirements for aircrew in Part-ARA of the Aircrew Regulation and for the authority requirements for air operations in Part-ARO14 of Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/201215 8 Civil aviation safety investigation authorities as per Regulation (EU) No 996/2010 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 October 2010 on the investigation and prevention of accidents and incidents in civil aviation and repealing Directive 94/56/EC (OJ L 295, 12.11.2010, p. 35) (http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1479212032445&uri=CELEX:32010R0996). 9 Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/445 of 17 March 2015 amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew (OJ L 74, 18.3.2015, p. 1) (http://eur- lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1479212389096&uri=CELEX:32015R0445). 10 Annex I to the Aircrew Regulation 11 Annex III to Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 12 Decision 2015/012/R of the Executive Director amending the Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part- Definitions and Part-ORO of Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 (https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/agency-decisions/ed- decision-2015012r). 13 Annex VI to the Aircrew Regulation 14 Annex II to Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 15 Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 of 5 October 2012 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to air operations pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 296, 25.10.2012, p. 1) (http://eur-lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1479222081326&uri=CELEX:32012R0965). TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 5 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what (hereinafter referred to as the ‘Air OPS Regulation’) with regard to competent authority inspectors to be published with the AMC/GM upon adoption of the proposed rules. This Opinion does not, however, address other aircraft categories (such as helicopters) as the main focus of the aforementioned international WGs and the ICAO SARPs has been primarily on aeroplanes. For a more detailed analysis of the issues addressed by this proposal, please refer to the RIA chapter. Interfaces with related RMTs Considering the issue from a broader perspective, RMT.0581 was preceded by RMT.0411 (OPS.094) ‘Crew Resource Management (CRM) training’16, which was also driven by some of the aforementioned SRs. The produced by RMT.0411 Decisions (2015/022/R17 and 2015/023/R18) on CRM training contain provisions on UPRT-related issues, such as the surprise and startle effects as well as pilot resilience development. These CRM provisions mainly support UPRT for CAT operators. Moreover, EASA requested the introduction of UPRT learning objectives (LOs) for the theoretical knowledge (TK) instruction and examinations for the ATPL(A), MPL and CPL(A) through the industry-led RMT.0595 ‘Technical review of theoretical knowledge syllabi, learning objectives, and examination procedures for the Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL(A)), Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (MPL), Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL), and Instrument Rating (IR)’. RMT.0196 ‘Update of flight simulation training devices requirements’ was commenced in June 2016 with one objective being to assess whether the existing FSTDs appropriately facilitate the new UPRT requirements originating from RMT.0581. In particular, EASA identified the need to consider introducing adequate criteria and/or guidance for the IOS in support of UPRT. Furthermore, the RMG RMT.0196 have considered the FAA Part 60 Change 2 provisions related to FSTD qualification criteria. Consequently, EASA and the RMG propose that these Part 60 provisions should be included in an amendment to CS-FSTD, providing: — criteria for IOS to facilitate UPRT; — increased fidelity for approach to stall at high altitude; and — better simulation of the effects of airframe/engine ice accretion. In addition to the above, said Part 60 provisions will, on a voluntary basis, allow a full-flight simulator (FFS) to be qualified for simulating the post stall. This approach will also ensure minimal impact on FSTD operators having devices with two qualifications (both EASA and FAA), and any future FSTD- related Bilateral Aviation Safety Agreement (BASA) between the EU and the Unites States. RMT.0596 ‘Review of provisions for examiners and instructors (Subparts J and K of Part-FCL)’ was commenced in June 2016 with one objective being to determine whether any further provisions are needed in support of instructors who deliver UPRT. 16 http://www.easa.europa.eu/system/files/dfu/ToR%20RMT.0411%20(OPS.094)%20Issue%202.pdf http://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/notices-of-proposed-amendment/npa-2014-17 17 https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/agency-decisions/ed-decision-2015022r 18 https://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/agency-decisions/ed-decision-2015023r TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 6 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.2. What we want to achieve — objectives The overall objectives of the EASA system are defined in Article 2 of the Basic Regulation. This proposal will contribute to the achievement of the overall objectives by addressing the issues outlined in Chapter 2. The specific objective of this task is to ensure that initial and operator training and checking is adequate to provide pilots with the knowledge, skills and attitude to be competent in preventing and, if necessary, recovering from an upset event. To this end, this Opinion, proposes amendments to the Aircrew Regulation in order to ensure adequate transposition of the amendments to the ICAO SARPs into the European Union requirements by requiring; — basic UPRT in an aeroplane for the MPL(A), CPL(A) and ATP(A) training courses; — advanced UPRT in an aeroplane for the ATP(A) integrated training course and as a prerequisite for the first (multi-pilot) type rating; — ‘type-specific’ UPRT for (multi-pilot) type rating training courses. The related ED Decision, containing the AMC/GM, to be published upon adoption of the final rules should include the UPRT elements for; — the MPL(A), CPL(A), ATP(A) training syllabi; — (multi-pilot) type ratings, such as:  training in flight mechanics;  training in all applicable flight control laws of the aeroplane type and the operational consequences resulting from law degradations;  training in all the relevant specificities of a certain aeroplane type;  recovery exercises from (impending) stall situations during the take-off and the approach phase;  manual aeroplane handling exercises and techniques during stall prevention and stall recovery scenarios, including exercises at high altitude;  realistic training scenarios that contain surprise and startle effects;  more emphasis on manual aeroplane handling skills and, for initial type rating training, a requirement to conduct a go-around in the aeroplane with all engines operating;  training on the conduct of a go-around at low speed with pitch trim in an unusual nose-up position, and consider including this exercise in the skill test or proficiency check; and  more emphasis on the potential degradation of situational awareness (basic pilot skills) and flight path management due to the increased flight crew reliance on aircraft automation; and — the LAPL(A) and PPL(A) training syllabi, adapted to the safety risks identified during the Agency’s safety review in GA. Moreover, the ED Decision should also include guidance material for competent authority inspectors to facilitate the oversight of the respective UPRT courses. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 7 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what The ED Decision to be published as a result of RMT.0595 ‘Technical review of theoretical knowledge syllabi, learning objectives, and examination procedures for the Air Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL(A)), Multi-Crew Pilot Licence (MPL), Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL), and Instrument Rating (IR)’ is planned to be published in the course of the third quarter of 2017, and includes learning objectives related to UPRT. In this context, it should be noted that the provisions for operator conversion and recurrent training were already published in May 2015, and have become applicable from May 2016. With regard to theoretical knowledge for CPL, ATPL and IR, the merging of the two existing subjects ‘VFR communications’ and ‘IFR communications’ into the new subject ‘Communications’ (as developed by RMT.0595) requires some amendments to both the provisions on theoretical knowledge requirements for the said licences in Part-FCL and also the provisions in Appendix 1 to Part-FCL on crediting of theoretical knowledge. Finally, the European Central Question Bank (ECQB) is being revised in order to not only contain multiple-choice questions but also open questions. For these reasons, the term ‘multiple-choice’ in Annex VI (Part-ARA) to the Aircrew Regulation needs to be deleted. 2.3. What are the stakeholders’ views — outcome of the consultation As mentioned, the comments related to the proposed rule changes with the NPA have been taken into account. Most of the comments related to the proposed AMC and GM will be responded to only with the ED Decision anticipated to be issued in the course of the 2nd quarter of 2018 upon the adoption of the final rules. EASA anticipates some further discussions based on the comments received with the RMG RMT.0581 and the General Aviation (GA) task force as mentioned under Section 2.3.1 to finalise the AMC and GM. 2.3.1 General Aviation and LOC-I At least 20 % of the comments came from General Aviation (GA) stakeholders. A significant proportion raised their concern on the proposed UPRT provisions for light aircraft pilot licence for aeroplane (LAPL(A)) and PPL(A) training course provisions and questioned the prescriptive nature and the actual need for them as well as the related financial burden in terms of additional training costs. There were also calls for a different approach to mitigating LOC-I within GA and that ICAO does not require UPRT for PPL. On the other hand, some comments supported the idea of introducing UPRT at the PPL level, asking for even more in-depth UPRT. EASA also acknowledges that some elements within UPRT are already covered by today’s LAPL and PPL training syllabi. In this context, EASA would like to emphasise that the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A will not be mandated for LAPL and PPL training. Additionally, amendments suggested by one comment for FCL.800 to make the aerobatic rating more accessible for GA are outside the scope of this task. A more in-depth safety review showed that LOC-I in GA remains a major risk in areas such as take-off and landing and flights in poor weather conditions. Further internal discussions and discussions with EASA’s GA Road Map initiative and other external GA stakeholders were held. As a result, EASA decided that some theoretical and practical training elements are to be mandated for the LAPL(A) and PPL(A) mainly focused on preventing upsets, but less demanding than the ones for commercial aviation and therefore more proportionate to GA. These revised UPRT elements will be introduced through amendments to the AMC pertaining to the LAPL and PPL syllabi, based on the comments received and in consultation with a dedicated GA task force. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 8 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Moreover, EASA intends to launch safety promotion activities to complement the rulemaking action. In this context, EASA believes that the newly proposed basic instrument rating (BIR) proposed by the RMG RMT.0677 is likely to provide a more accessible instrument rating for GA pilots which in turn could potentially reduce GA-related LOC-I events associated with poor weather conditions. 2.3.2 Safety promotion rather than a regulatory solution A few comments questioned whether EASA should introduce new rules at all or it would be more appropriate to mitigate LOC-I through only safety promotion or a combination thereof. To ensure compliance with the latest ICAO Annex 1 SARPs and associated documents, amendments to the ATP, MPL and type rating training courses were inevitable. EASA acknowledges that these new requirements may lead to an extension of the existing training courses in the same way as for the introduction of new technologies. Nevertheless, as mentioned in 2.3.1, for GA no change to the overall course requirements will be made. Instead of this, some UPRT elements will be added to the LAPL and PPL syllabi, as given in AMC, based on existing exercises already covering the subject matter to a certain extent. EASA reiterates that it intends to complement these rulemaking actions with safety promotion activities. 2.3.3 Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs and associated documents, and alignment with the FAA FARs Some comments questioned whether the proposed provisions were compliant with ICAO SARPs. EASA emphasises that the proposal is in line the latest ICAO Annex 1 SARPs and associated documents. Moreover, the provisions — published in May 2015 with ED Decision 2015/12/R — require all CAT operators approved in accordance with the Air OPS Regulation to provide UPRT to their flight crews. These requirements are fully harmonised with the UPRT requirements in ICAO Annex 6. More specifically, in relation to initial training, EASA highlights that the MPL training course has already included UPRT since 2012. EASA envisages that from April 2019 (after entry into force in 2018 and with a subsequent one-year transitional period), ATP, CPL and type rating training courses also include UPRT. Some comments also expressed concerns that some requirements are not fully aligned with the FAA FARs. In this context, EASA reiterates that the proposed requirements are in line with ICAO and that alignment with the FAA has been achieved for the largest part, albeit some differences remain. As mentioned, EASA anticipates the new rules for initial licencing and type rating training to be applicable from April 2019 at the latest, which is in accordance with the required ICAO timeframe, and also the case for the FAA FARs applicability dates. EASA provisions for CAT operators have already entered into force in May 2016. In this context, it needs to be highlighted that ‘grandfathering’ is envisaged for holders of existing licences and ratings. This means that pilots already holding licences or ratings for which the new rules will require UPRT will not be forced to undergo additional training. However, pilots involved in commercial air transport will undergo UPRT as part of the operator training in accordance with Part- ORO Subpart FC. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 9 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.3.4 Clarification on the terms ‘upset prevention’, ‘upset recovery’, and ‘stall event’ Approximately 10 % of the comments expressed concern on the use of the terms ‘upset prevention’, ‘upset recovery’, and ‘stall event’. EASA acknowledges the concerns and has further clarified the proposed rule text where possible by referring to both ‘upset prevention and recovery’, and the AMC and GM will be also revised accordingly in due course. Additionally, EASA reiterates that the term ‘stall event’ means both ‘approach-to-stall’ and ‘stall’. While an ‘approach-to-stall’ exercise must be conducted in an FFS qualified in accordance with CS-FSTD(A), this is not possible for a ‘stall’ exercise as currently no certification criteria for simulating a ‘stall’ exist. The ongoing RMT.0196 will propose such criteria to be established for optional qualification of an FFS to facilitate optional stall training exercises. By using the term ‘stall event’, training providers may decide, in addition to the mandatory approach to stall exercise, to deliver stall exercises on the basis of a careful evaluation in consultation with the competent authority to ensure that negative transfer of training is avoided. Conversely, in the context of basic UPRT during the ATP, CPL, and MPL training courses, and during the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A in an aeroplane, both approach-to-stall and stall exercises shall be conducted. A few comments queried why the term ‘unusual attitude’ was replaced by ‘upset’. EASA clarifies that this new terminology is taken from ICAO Doc 10011 to ensure industry-wide consistency. The term ‘unusual attitude’, however, will be kept to describe unintended flight path deviations during aerobatic flight and aerobatic flight training. Some comments suggested that the term ‘impending stall’ should not have been used. EASA agrees and clarifies that ‘recovery from stall event’, as defined, was meant instead. 2.3.5 UPRT delivered during the ATP, MPL, and CPL training courses Some comments expressed concern over the prescriptive complex nature of the proposal and its readability for the ATP, MPL, and CPL training courses in the context of delivering UPRT. EASA agrees that a certain amount of flexibility is needed to account for external factors and allow appropriate course design, but notes that this flexibility is already provided to approved training organisations (ATOs) under the current rules. As mentioned in 2.3.4, EASA has further clarified the use of the terms ‘upset prevention’ and ‘upset recovery’ with the aim of also improving readability and reducing complexity. In general, the proposed set of new rules has been, and with regard to AMC and GM will be, revised to foresee the provision of UPRT elements at different levels in order to ensure an integrated approach towards UPRT being reinforced throughout a pilot’s career, as recommended by the expert WGs: (a) New AMC to Part-FCL Appendix 3 will be developed to complement the existing flight and synthetic training syllabi for all CPL and ATP courses with basic UPRT elements which should be integrated in existing relevant exercises (e.g. stall recovery, spin avoidance) including briefing and de-briefing. The new AMC will also be linked to Appendix 5 on MPL. (b) The advanced UPRT course according to FCL.745.A is designed to amplify knowledge and skills in upset prevention and, especially, upset recovery, with the final objective of exposing students and making them more resilient to psychological and physiological aspects usually experienced with a dynamic upset, which is difficult to be done in an FSTD. Students of an ATP integrated or TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 10 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what an MPL training course will need to undergo this UPRT course as an integral part of the course. Additionally, this UPRT course will be a prerequisite for the first class or type rating for: — single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operation; — single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; and — multi-pilot aeroplanes (new FCL.720.A(h)). (c) Finally, training courses for class or type ratings for aeroplanes referred to at the end of point (b) will need to contain UPRT elements and exercises related to the specificities of the relevant class or type (revised FCL.725.A(c)). In this context, please refer also to Section 2.3.10 of this Opinion. All UPRT elements, either as new parts of existing courses (as indicated above in points (a) and (c)) or as a new training course (as mentioned in point (b)) will need to be undertaken at an ATO. This is in line with the requirement of ICAO to deliver this type of training within an ATO. However, the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A could also be subject to contracted activities in accordance with ORA.GEN.205. Some comments suggested that pilots failing to complete to a satisfactory standard the advanced UPRT course according to FCL.745.A — as part of the ATP integrated course — should not be able to progress through the CPL modular route. EASA highlights that pilots who have not completed this training course as part of an ATP integrated course, but who intend to pursue an airline career by following the CPL modular route instead would still be required to undertake the advanced UPRT course prior to commencing their first class or type rating course for aeroplanes specified in point (b). In such cases, the advanced UPRT course according to FCL.745.A is a prerequisite, similar to the multi- crew cooperation (MCC) course. Some comments called for recurrent training on the FCL.745 course in order to maintain knowledge and skills with regard to UPRT. The RMG for the time being does not believe that this is necessary, as neither evidence indicates such need nor does ICAO require such recurrent UPRT. However, this idea will be part of the ex post evaluation of this rule change. Some comments called for an exclusion of the CPL from the UPRT requirements, as this may pose a burden to the lower end of commercial activities. In this context, it has to be highlighted that the FCL.745.A course is not required for both modular and integrated CPL training courses. For these courses, only basic UPRT exercises will be integrated into the syllabi (see above Section 2.3.5 (a)). When continuing the career at a CAT operator or in general either in a multi-crew environment or in single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A will still need to be completed. EASA believes that this solution is appropriate (similar to the approach used for MCC). In one comment, it was proposed to credit holders of an aerobatic rating towards the FCL.745.A course. EASA in this context highlights that the FCL.745.A course and the aerobatic training course in accordance with FCL.800 are aiming at different training objectives. Therefore, such credit cannot be granted. Some comments called for mandating aerobatic aircraft to be used. As aerobatic aircraft is not required for all exercises in the syllabus, EASA decided not to specifically mandate aerobatic aircraft to be used for the entire course. It will be up to the ATO to evaluate which aircraft will be used for which TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 11 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what part of the training. However, EASA considers further developing the AMC material on the training syllabus to indicate whether normal or aerobatic categories could be used. 2.3.6 Flight instructor privileges for delivering basic UPRT during the ATP and CPL training courses, and for delivering the advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A 5 % of the comments expressed concerns over the privileges of flight instructors (FIs(A)) delivering basic UPRT during the ATP and CPL training courses, and delivering the newly proposed advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A. Furthermore, concerns were expressed over the required extension of privileges needed for FIs(A) wishing to deliver the advanced UPRT course. Due to the different risk profiles, EASA would like to emphasise that existing FIs(A) on ATP and CPL training courses already today have the privileges to teach existing exercises containing UPRT elements (stall recovery, spin avoidance, steep turns and recovery from unusual attitudes); however, it is recommended for these instructors to do so only within the proposed ‘recommended training envelope’ as to be defined in AMC (intended limitations: maximum bank angle of 45°, maximum positive pitch attitude of 25°, maximum negative pitch attitude of -10°). The ATO is in any case responsible for ensuring that these instructors are competent to teach these basic UPRT elements by establishing appropriate procedures in the relevant ATO documentation (Part D of the operations manual (OM-D)). On the contrary, only flight instructors having completed the new UPRT instructor course (new FCL.915(e)) should conduct the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A, containing exercises outside the recommended training envelope. Nevertheless, as some comments suggested that this division may not be appropriate, EASA will further assess this issue in the context of the activities under RMT.0596 on instructors and examiners. As regards some comments that queried ways to design the course, EASA highlights that this is for the ATO to decide. In any case, GM will be developed to clarify that the 3hour flight training must be in place as a minimum to ensure effective flight training covering the training programme. 2.3.7 Training course in FCL.915(e) for flight instructors delivering the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A 10 % of the comments related to the newly proposed FCL.915(e) training course at an ATO for flight instructors delivering the advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A. Some comments questioned the need for having an aerobatic rating as a prerequisite for commencing the course. EASA reiterates that: — the ATO is responsible for determining the training needs of a new applicant on a case-by-case basis; — the safety management system (SMS) of the ATO should ensure that the increased risks are appropriately mitigated; — it is the responsibility of the ATO to ensure instructors providing the advanced UPRT course are competent (including the ability to recover the aircraft from any situation triggered by poor handling by the student, e.g. a flat spin); and — the aeroplanes used are qualified for the training task and provide an adequate margin for safety. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 12 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what As any instructor, not only an FI, may follow this type of training, EASA proposed minimum regulatory prerequisites, including having a certain amount of prior instructing and flight experience, for consistency with other instructor prerequisites in Part-FCL Subpart J. It should be emphasised that the advanced UPRT course should not be confused with aerobatics in this context. However, EASA and the RMG experts indeed believe that some past aerobatic experience is useful for new instructors to be able to better cope with unexpected and incorrect recoveries by the student pilot after a dynamic upset exercise. Consequently, after further consultation with the RG experts, EASA decided to move the aerobatic rating requirement from the rule to the AMC level to provide more flexibility. This AMC will also contain the possibility to recognise equivalent experience acceptable to the competent authority in lieu of an aerobatic rating, such as past military flight experience. One comment suggested that all instructors (meaning both flight and synthetic instructors), including those that only deliver training in FSTD, undergo the new training course according to FCL.915(e). Another comment called for requiring at least all instructors teaching on instructor training courses to undergo this training course. Due to the limited capacity of this type of training, EASA does not believe that requiring all instructors to undergo this training is feasible in the short term, or simply not possible as it is the case with some synthetic fight instructors (SFIs) who might not even be able to undergo such training in an aircraft due to medical reasons. However, in the medium/long term, many FSTD instructors will have completed the advanced UPRT course as part of the initial licensing training through the course in accordance with FCL.745.A. Finally, as already explained in Section 2.3.6, while during ATP and CPL training courses instructors should conduct air exercises solely within the ‘recommended training envelope’, only instructors having completed the UPRT instructor training course in accordance with FCL.915(e) may conduct air exercises outside this envelope (all bank and pitch angels) whilst delivering the FCL.745.A training course. In this context, and taking into account the above, EASA concludes that not all instructors should be required to undergo the UPRT instructor training course, irrespective of whether or not they intend to instruct on UPRT courses in accordance with FCL.745.A. Many comments requested the 3-month recency requirement to be increased or deleted in its entirety. After further discussion, EASA and RG experts strongly believe that a certain amount of recency should be kept, but that the period could be increased to 12 months instead. The revised FCL.915(e)(2) now requires the UPRT instructional privileges to be maintained by acting as an instructor at least for one UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A during the last 12 months or, if compliance with this requirement is not possible, by acting as an instructor on the course under the supervision of an instructor qualified to instruct on the course in accordance with FCL.915(e). Some comments questioned the additional requirements to be able to train the trainer. EASA and the RG believe a certain standard is needed and consequently the rule was kept. EASA and the RG believe this ensures consistency with other instructor requirements in Part-FCL Subpart J and that 25 hours is a reasonable minimum amount of experience. Many comments were received querying whether the additional privilege is to be endorsed in the licence or in the logbook or both. EASA and RMG experts discussed the issues and agreed that only the logbook should be endorsed. For instructors undergoing the training course, a continuous assessment takes place under the responsibility of the ATO. Upon completion of the course, the instructor obtains the endorsement in the logbook by the ATO’s head of training in addition to a course completion certificate issued by the ATO. AMC will be developed in support of endorsing the logbook. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 13 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what One comment suggested that a flight instructor examiner (FIE) would not be the appropriate examiner to complete the assessment of competence and that this requirement would pose a burden to the system. EASA and the RMG experts emphasise that the FIE holding the underlying privilege to instruct on the advanced UPRT course would only need to assess the instructor training the trainer. This also allows the competent authority to perform its oversight duties. Finally, EASA highlights that FCL.900(b) is amended in order to allow Member States to qualify the first instructors for delivering training in accordance with the new point FCL.915(e). 2.3.8 UPRT training in FSTDs including ‘stall events’ Many commentators expressed concerns over whether or not post-stall training would be mandated in an FFS. One comment suggested to require existing FSTDs to undergo a special evaluation before being used for UPRT. With this Opinion, EASA does not propose post-stall training to be required in an FFS (see above Section 2.3.4), and reiterates that existing FSTDs may be used to facilitate UPRT. As mentioned in 2.1. above, the ongoing RMT.0196 will propose additional qualification requirements for facilitating approach-to-stall exercises at high altitude and for better simulation of the adverse aerodynamic effects of airframe/engine ice accretion. In addition, RMT.0196 will propose new criteria for the IOS to provide better feedback to the instructor in support of UPRT. Further to this, it should be highlighted that currently the IOS is not certified at all. In this context, some commentators queried on the definition of the validated training envelope (VTE) which will now be included in the definitions list provided by GM to FCL.010. All UPRT exercises should remain within the VTE. Whilst unintended excursions outside the VTE are to be anticipated during training, it is up to instructor judgment to determine whether such excursion is acceptable in the context of preventing negative transfer of training. As mentioned in Section 2.3.4, the ongoing RMT.0196 will propose additional criteria to be established for optional qualification of an FFS to facilitate post-stall training exercises. It should be emphasised that the revised exercise 3.7 in Part-FCL Appendix 9 Section B paragraph 6 (test profile for multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes) only mandates approach-to-stall exercises. The objective of these exercises is to provide flight crews with the correct type-specific recovery procedures and familiarise them with the type-specific characteristics of such an event. Moreover, some commentators posed questions on whether the recovery exercises from excessive bank angles are included in Section B paragraph 6 exercise 3.7.1 of Part-FCL Appendix 9. These exercises should not be confused with steep turns (exercise 3.1.2.) which typically are completed with a 45-degree angle of bank turns with the objective of improving scanning. Moreover, EASA and the RMG experts do not believe that it is needed to be too prescriptive on the maximum bank angles, as this very much depends on the aeroplane type. It is recommended that training exercises should be developed in close consultation with the respective aeroplane’s original equipment manufacturers (OEMs). One commentator suggested the introduction of AMC to define a classification of UPRT exercises in two categories, namely generic UPRT and type-specific UPRT, and that a similar approach could be applied for training of simulator instructors. EASA would like to highlight that it is important that both generic and type-specific UPRT are reinforced throughout a pilot’s career (see also Section 2.3.5), and therefore does not believe that there is a need to develop two categories of UPRT exercises. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 14 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Some commentators requested EASA to provide realistic training manoeuvres that could contain take- off and approach stall situations, and/or surprise and startle effects. EASA believes that ATOs have the competence to develop such training in consultation with the OEMs who should validate the appropriateness in terms of realism and avoiding negative transfer of training. EASA will consider developing further GM in this context, where possible. EASA also acknowledges that developing surprise and startle effects in an FSTD is challenging. Nevertheless, future pilots will be exposed to surprise and startle effects, and corresponding coping strategies during the FCL.745.A advanced UPRT course, thereby somewhat negating the need to develop such scenarios in an FSTD. In addition, EASA would like to highlight that approach-to-stall exercises should be delivered as manoeuvre-based exercises led by the instructor, rather than scenario-based, to avoid negative transfer of training. EASA has also amended Section 3 of Part-FCL Appendix 9 Section B paragraph 6, by replacing ‘possible’ by ‘applicable’ in the context of flight control laws, based on one comment received. 2.3.9 Instructors delivering UPRT in FSTDs Several comments questioned the additional transitional requirements for FSTD instructors for delivering UPRT in an FSTD. In this context EASA highlights that existing FSTD instructors already today have the privilege to deliver type-specific UPRT in an FSTD within the FSTD VTE, and that the ATO is responsible for ensuring that any new training elements and methods are appropriately addressed through additional training such as an additional theoretical knowledge training, in accordance with the ATO procedures (OM-D). As regards training in terms of the Air OPS Regulation (operator training), air operators should have the same obligation for their instructors. Some comments also suggested that simulator instructors should also undergo either the advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A or the respective instructor course in FLC.915. As mentioned already in Section 2.3.7, EASA highlights that in the medium to long term, all new pilots having completed an ATP or MPL training course and/or having completed an initial class or type rating training course will have undergone the training course according to FCL.745.A. This also implies that future SFI(A) and TRI(A) will have undergone this type of training. In the short term however, EASA recommends SFI(A) and TRI(A) to undergo such course on a voluntary basis, as it may be beneficial to a certain extent to gain more in-depth knowledge of the psychological and physiological factors often experienced during dynamic aeroplane upsets in support of delivering UPRT in FSTDs. 2.3.10 UPRT during type ratings Several comments asked for clarification in regard to which type ratings require integration of UPRT. EASA closely follows the ICAO requirement for UPRT in multi-pilot operations, albeit the fact that due to the structure of Part-FCL Appendix 9, also single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes will need to integrate UPRT into the type rating. In other words, type-specific UPRT will be required for training courses for both multi-pilot aeroplane (MPA) and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type ratings, as well as, for type rating training for any single-pilot aeroplane used in multi- pilot operations (see also Section 2.3.5 (b)). Some commentators considered allowing only FFS to be used to facilitate the recovery exercises during UPRT overly restrictive, citing that in some cases other FSTDs instead of the FFS could be utilised, especially for those aeroplanes for which an FFS does not exist. EASA acknowledges that for a limited TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 15 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what number of aeroplanes the proposed FFS requirements (contained in the provisions for the UPRT- related exercises in the revised Part-FCL Appendix 9) may be problematic. As a result, EASA has tasked RMT.0196 to determine whether (combinations of) other FSTDs could be capable of being used instead of an FFS to facilitate UPRT. 2.3.11 Duplication of UPRT: Mixed fleet flying and crediting between aircrew and air operations training requirements Several comments expressed concerns over the potential duplication of UPRT when an operator utilises mixed fleet flying. EASA believes that the operational suitability data (OSD) process could be used to avoid duplication. OEMs may apply for credits for type-specific UPRT through an operational evaluation in accordance with Part-21 provisions and CS-FCD. Any credits will be reflected in the applicable OSD reports. Concerns were also expressed over potential overlap between initial type rating and the operator conversion training. EASA believes that such overlap is minimal especially considering the added safety benefits. Furthermore, the operator conversion training requires only a minimum of two prevention items to be included, whereas the initial type rating course requires the inclusion of all UPRT-related items. 2.3.12 Crediting provisions in Appendix 1 to Part-FCL One comment indicated that some crediting provisions that should have also been addressed, were omitted from the NPA. EASA agrees that an applicant for IR(A) theory having passed the relevant examination for CPL(A) theory is credited towards theoretical knowledge requirement in subject ‘Communications’ (reflected in a revised point 4.1 of Appendix 1 to Part-FCL), and an applicant for a CPL(A) theory having passed the relevant examination for IR(A) theory is credited towards theoretical knowledge requirement in subject ‘Communications’ (reflected in a new point 2.4 of Appendix 1 to Part-FCL). 2.3.13 Cover regulation provisions and transitional measures Several comments requested clarification on the intended entry into force and applicability dates of the amendments proposed with this Opinion. EASA suggests that the Commission should aim to have the proposed amendments enter into force the latest by 8 April 2018. As there will however be a need to provide a transition period, EASA recommends to the Commission to grant pilot training organisations a transitional period until 8 April 2019 for adapting their training programmes to comply with the new UPRT requirements. With regard to training courses starting before this day, transitional provisions for the issue of licences (ATPL, MPL) and the class and type ratings affected by the new UPRT requirements (see Section 2.3.13) should be put in place, considering the possible duration and time arrangements of these training courses. Up to 8 April 2018, new UPRT elements may be integrated into the ATP, MPL, as well as class and type rating training courses on a voluntary basis. EASA also recommends to the Commission to allow Member States to credit UPRT received prior to 8 April 2019 towards the ATP, CPL and MPL as well as towards class and type rating courses, as applicable. From 8 April 2019, all applicable training courses should have been adapted to include UPRT and all affected instructors should have received the required training prior to delivering UPRT. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 16 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what With regard to the existing provisions of the Aircrew Regulation, not yet applicable due to an opt-out provision (see Article 3(2) of Regulation (EU) 2015/44519), EASA recommends to the Commission to extend this opt-out provision for the time being (until April 2019) and to finally put these UPRT provisions out of force when the new UPRT requirements proposed with this Opinion will come into effect. 2.3.14 Other items Several comments related to the proposed definitions/abbreviations. Also, some commentators asked all the UPRT definitions to be listed at rule level rather than in GM. EASA highlights that the definitions are in accordance with ICAO Doc 10011 and that they are considered to be too technical for the high- level rule and are therefore kept in GM. However, EASA acknowledges that the lists of definitions and abbreviations need to be revised as follows: — Additional abbreviations are introduced for:  instructor operating stations (IOS);  OEM (original equipment manufacturer);  CL (coefficient of lift) and CD (coefficient of drag);  validated training envelope (VTE); and  aeroplane upset recovery training aid (AURTA). — References and notes related to the spin are deleted. — Definition of ‘manual flight’ may be added pending a further review by the RMG. Other proposals for amending the definitions such as for ‘energy state’ and ‘loss of control in-flight (LOC-I)’ are not accepted to ensure that consistency with the applicable ICAO Doc 10011 definitions is kept. One comment suggested to add 4 NM from touchdown as an alternative to the outer marker checkpoint. EASA agrees that not every airport has an outer marker and has amended the respective exercise in Appendix 9 (Exercises 3.8.3.5). In this context, an exercise in Appendix 9 has been inserted (exercise 3.8.3.5), requiring a manually flown approach, with an engine malfunction to be simulated whilst on final approach after being fully established on the localiser and glide slope and having passed either the OM or 4 NM to touchdown. This exercise would aim to develop competence in managing such situations to a safe flight and should include consideration for continuing to land or for completing the missed approach procedure. As there is also an SR on this issue, EASA decided to include this new training exercise in Appendix 9. Finally, there was a proposal that all CRM aspects are systematically covered at each instructor revalidation. EASA intends to address the CRM aspects through other tasks, as appropriate, as this issue is deemed to be out of the scope of this task. 19 Commission Regulation (EU) 2015/445 of 17 March 2015 amending Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew (OJ L 74, 18.3.2015, p. 1) (http://eur- lex.europa.eu/legal-content/EN/TXT/?qid=1498465659548&uri=CELEX:32015R0445). TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 17 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what One comment suggested to be more specific on the content of briefing and debriefing tools to support UPRT. EASA believes that this is best left to the ATO which can develop its respective tools tailored to their needs and based on the ICAO Doc 10011 and the guidance contained therein in order to grant flexibility. One comment asked for AURTA revision 3 to be referenced. EASA agrees and will ensure that the respective AMC/GM material contain the correct reference. Several comments showed appreciation for the go-around exercises in the context of somatogravic illusion during the type rating landing training. However, AMC will be further reworded to indicate that somatogravic illusion is not the only training objective of this exercise. Several comments also suggested that the take-off and landings between the type rating and the type rating training as part of the MPL training course should be aligned at the same level of legislation. EASA acknowledges this consistency issue and will address this with a future RMT, as it is outside the scope of this RMT. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 18 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.4. Safety Recommendations — outcome of the EASA safety assessment FRAN-2012-039 The French Accident Investigation Board (BEA) recommends that European Aviation Safety Agency ensure the integration, in type rating and recurrent training programmes, of exercises that take into account all of the reconfiguration laws. The objective sought is to make its recognition and understanding easier for crews especially when dealing with the level of protection available and the possible differences in handling characteristics, including at the limits of the flight envelope. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, Rio de Janeiro – Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012 Outcome of the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is addressed through: safety assessment — Proposals to introduce mandatory UPRT, testing and checking at various stages throughout a pilot’s career:  advanced UPRT course (new FCL.745.A) as a prerequisite for training courses for single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi- pilot operation, single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes (amendments to FCL.720.A);  Inclusion of UPRT elements considering the specificities of the particular class or type during the relevant class or type rating training course (amendments to FCL.725.A);  Amendments to Appendix 9, paragraphs 5 and 6 in Annex I (Part-FCL) to the Aircrew Regulation for including upset prevention and recovery exercises into training courses, skill test and proficiency checks related to single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operations, single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot type rating training courses; and — New AMC and GM to ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2012-040 The BEA recommends that more generally, EASA ensure that type rating and recurrent training programmes take into account the specificities of the aircraft for which they are designed. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, Rio de Janeiro – Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is addressed through the activities specified TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 19 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what safety assessment above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN-2012-039’. Additionally, it has to be highlighted that in general the OSD process aims at ensuring that training programmes are developed to cater for the specificities of the particular aircraft. NETH-2010-007 The French Civil Aviation Authority (DGAC), International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) and EASA should change their regulations in such a way that airlines and flying training organisations see to it that their recurrent training programmes include practising recovery from stall situations on approach. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 25 February 2009 to the Boeing 737-800 flight nr TK1951 near Amsterdam Schiphol Airport (project number M2009LV0225_01), published by the Dutch Safety Board on 06 May 2010 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is addressed through new AMC and GM to safety assessment ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2010-004 The BEA recommends that EASA undertake a safety study with a view to improving the certification standards of warning systems for crews during reconfigurations of flight control systems or the training of crews in identifying these reconfigurations and determining the immediate operational consequences. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 27 November 2008 off the coast of Canet-Plage (66) to the Airbus A320-232 registered D-AXLA, published by the BEA in September 2010 Outcome the EASA In relation to ‘the training of crews in identifying reconfigurations of flight safety assessment control systems and determining the immediate operational consequences’, this has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the changes of: — FCL.720.A, FCL.725.A, Appendix 9, paragraphs 5 and 6 in Annex I (Part-FCL) to the Aircrew Regulation, and related AMC and GM, related to single-pilot aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations and multi- pilot type rating training courses; and — New AMC and GM to ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2010-005 The BEA recommends that EASA, in cooperation with manufacturers, improve training exercises and techniques relating to approach-to-stall to ensure control of the aeroplane in the pitch axis. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 20 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Reference: Final Report on the accident on 27 November 2008 off the coast of Canet-Plage (66) to the Airbus A320-232 registered D-AXLA, published by the BEA in September 2010 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. FRAN-2011-009 The BEA recommends that EASA review the content of check and training programmes and make mandatory, in particular, the setting up of specific and regular exercises dedicated to manual aircraft handling of approach- to-stall and stall recovery, including at high altitude. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, Rio de Janeiro – Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. SPAN-2011-018 It is recommended that the FAA and EASA require take-off stall recovery as part of initial and recurring training programmes of airline transport pilots. Reference: Report A-032/2008 - Accident involving a McDonnell Douglas DC-9-82 (MD-82) aircraft, registration EC-HFP, at Madrid-Barajas Airport, on 20 August 2008, published by the Spanish Accident Investigation Authority (CIAIAC) on 01 August 2011. Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. It should be noted that the exercise to be conducted includes recovery from a stall event in the take-off configuration at a safe altitude. Moreover, EASA and the RMG are of the opinion that this issue relates more to non- compliance with procedures. Additionally, EASA and the RMG do not believe that requiring a stall event recovery during the take-off phase can be realistically accomplished without the risk of significant negative training as well as negative transfer of training. SOUF-2010-009 It is recommended that the regulatory and certifying authorities of all States of Design and States of Manufacture should introduce requirements to operators that they should provide flight crews with more basic hand flying and simulator flight training on new generation aircraft to address the technological developments in aviation, inclusive of effective stall training. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 21 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Reference: Serious incident investigation report final report Boeing B747- 400 G-BYGA Group ‘A’ L/E Flaps retraced on Takeoff from O.R. Tambo Airport, South Africa. Published on 11 May 2009 by the Accident Incident Investigation Division (AIID) of the South African Civil Aviation Authority (SACAA). Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is addressed through the new AMC and GM safety assessment to ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2012-021 The BEA recommends that EASA introduce the surprise effect in training scenarios in order to train pilots to react to these phenomena and work under stress. Reference: Final Report Serious incident on 22 July 2011 in cruise at FL350, North Atlantic Ocean, to the Airbus A340-313 registered F-GLZU, published by the BEA in May 2012 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. FRAN-2012-041 The BEA recommends that EASA define recurrent training programme requirements to make sure, through practical exercises, that the theoretical knowledge, particularly on flight mechanics, is well understood. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, Rio de Janeiro – Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012 Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and addressed through the new AMC and GM to safety assessment ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2012-046 The BEA recommends that EASA ensure the introduction into the training scenarios of the effects of surprise in order to train pilots to face these phenomena and to work in situations with a highly charged emotional factor. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, Rio de Janeiro – Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. FRAN-2013-023 The BEA recommends that EASA review the regulatory requirements for the first CS-25 type rating in order to make mandatory the performance of a TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 22 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what go-around in the aeroplane with all engines operating. Reference: Study on Aeroplane State Awareness during Go-Around, published by the BEA in August 2013 Outcome the EASA The SR has been evaluated and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment changes of: — Appendix 9, paragraph 6 in Annex I (Part-FCL) to the Aircrew Regulation, and related AMC and GM, related to multi-pilot type rating training courses; and — AMC to ORA.ATO.125 in ED Decision 2011/016/R related to multi- pilot aeroplane type rating training courses, in force from 4 May 2016. FRAN-2013-041 The BEA recommends that EASA, in cooperation with the national civil aviation authorities, major non-European certification authorities and manufacturers ensure that pilots have practical knowledge of the conduct required during a go-around at low speed with pitch trim in an unusual nose-up position, and that they make a competence assessment. Reference: Study on Aeroplane State Awareness during Go-Around, published by the BEA in August 2013 Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and addressed through the activities specified safety assessment above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN-2012-039’. It should be noted, that EASA and the RMG experts believe that the pilots should be trained to proficiency, rather than being tested or checked on their ability to conduct such a go-around. NETH-2014-005 EASA should review the applicable regulations on initial and recurrent flight crew training to assess whether they adequately address the potential degradation of situational awareness (basic pilot skills) and flight path management due to increased reliance on aircraft automation by flight crews. Reference: Report on Pitch-up Upsets due to ILS False Glide Slope, published by the Dutch Safety Board in June 2014 Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and addressed through the activities specified safety assessment above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN-2012-039’. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 23 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what FINL-2014-002 EASA should consider the translation, provide more detailed comments on the purpose of this exercise, and clarify it with practical examples. In addition, it is recommended that the possible new translation and the practical examples would be mandated to be incorporated in the training programmes of the training organisations. Reference: Report L2012-04 on the accident on 08 May 2012 to the Cessna A152 registered OH-CKB, at Alastaro Circuit Motorsport Center, Loimaa, published by the Safety Investigation Authority of Finland (SIAF) on 28.01.2014 Outcome the EASA EASA and the RG have assessed the SR and EASA, also taking into account safety assessment the comments received, has decided to address this issue through a dedicated GA task force. This is also explained in Section 2.3.1 above. FINL-2014-003 The PPL(A) syllabus stipulates flying a minimum of two hours of stall and spin avoidance training flights. It does not determine the number of successfully completed manoeuvres, variations thereof, or the focus between different types of manoeuvres in training. Safety Investigation Authority Finland recommends that the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) include a minimum number for both stall and spin avoidance manoeuvres in the PPL(A) flight training syllabus. As regards spin avoidance in particular, i.e. incipient spins, this is regarded as important. Reference: Report L2012-04 on the accident on 08 May 2012 to the Cessna A152 registered OH-CKB, at Alastaro Circuit Motorsport Center, Loimaa, published by the Safety Investigation Authority of Finland (SIAF) on 28.01.2014 Outcome the EASA EASA and the RG have assessed the SR, and EASA, also taking into account safety assessment the comments received, has decided to address this issue through a dedicated GA task force. This is also explained in Section 2.3.1 above. ARGT-2015-001 It is recommended to the Aviation Authorities to consider implementing changes to the compliance requirements with regard to the crew's instruction and training, related to flight manoeuvre that are carried out during operations with a large angle of attack or with abnormal flight attitudes. Consider making the following manoeuvres obligatory during the training and the licensing inspection (in flight simulators), in accordance with the aircraft: a) Recognising when a stall commences and how to prevent it from happening. b) Recognising and recovering from an artificial stall warning c) Recognising and recovering from a total aerodynamic stall TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 24 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what d) Practising how to recover from typical abnormal flight attitudes. Reference: Technical Report 096/2011 on the accident that occurred on 18 May 2011 to the Saab 340 A registered LV-CEJ, Caltrauna, between Los Menucos and Prahuaniyeu, province of Río Negro, published by the Argentinian Civil Aviation Accident Investigation Board (JIAAC) on 11 March 2015. Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and is proposed to be addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. With reference to Section 2.3.4 of this Opinion, in relation to type-specific recovery from a ‘total aerodynamic stall’, the assessment and comments received indicated concerns over potential negative transfer of training when using an FFS. Nevertheless, this issue has been forwarded to RMT.019620 for further consideration. FRAN-2012-045 The BEA recommends that EASA modify the basis of the regulations in order to ensure better fidelity for simulators in reproducing realistic scenarios of abnormal situations. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 1st June 2009 to the Airbus A330-203 registered F-GZCP, between Rio de Janeiro and Paris, published by the BEA in July 2012. Outcome the EASA This SR is being considered within the context of the activities of safety assessment RMT.0196. FRAN-2014-002 The BEA recommends that EASA reinforce initial and recurrent training programmes in “low speed” flying situations by improving: • monitoring of primary flight parameters; • identification and understanding of high angle of attack protection, in particular in a mixed flying situation (AP ON A/THR OFF). 20 RMT.0196 ‘Update of flight simulation training devices requirements’ (http://www.easa.europa.eu/document-library/terms-of- reference-and-group-compositions/tor-rmt0196). TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 25 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Reference: Final Report on the incident on 20 July 2012 to the Airbus A321 registered F-GTAN, at Paris Charles de Gaulle (95) Airport, published by the BEA in February 2014. Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and is (proposed to be) addressed through the safety assessment activities specified above on the outcome of the assessment of SR ‘FRAN- 2012-039’. FRAN-2016-007 EASA reinforce the content of training programmes related to complex high performance single-pilot aeroplanes by integrating exercises on management of asymmetrical during final approaches. Reference: Final Report on the accident on 28 October 2011 to the Piper PA31T registered OE-FKG, at Toulouse Blagnac Airport (31), published by the BEA in April 2016. Outcome the EASA Based also on the comments received, EASA has decided to propose safety assessment inclusion of this as a training exercise in Appendix 9. INDO-2015-002 The KNKT recommend expediting the implementation of mandatory for upset recovery training earlier than2019. Reference: Report number KNKT.14.12.29.04 on the accident on 28 December 2014 to the Airbus A320 registered PK-AXC, at Karimata Strait Indonesia, between Surabaya-Juanda Airport (SUB/WARR), Indonesia and Singapore-Changi International Airport (SIN/WSSS), Singapore, published by the KNKT on 01 December 2015 Outcome the EASA The SR has been agreed and addressed through the new AMC to safety assessment ORO.FC.220&230 in ED Decision 2015/012/R related to operator recurrent and conversion training, in force from 4 May 2016. RUSF-2013-002 IAC recommends EASA and other simulator certification authorities to consider the possibility to add into the simulator data-package the capability to simulate an unexpected or sudden aircraft stall at any stage of flight. Reference: Final Report on results of investigation of accident on 02.04.2012 to ATR72-201 registered VP-BYZ, near Tyumen-Roschino International Airport, Russia, published by the Interstate Aviation Committee of the Accident Investigation Commission, Federal Aviation Authorities of Russia on 16 July 2013 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 26 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Outcome the EASA EASA and the RMG would like to highlight that from a training perspective safety assessment it is not possible to simulate ‘unexpected’ or ‘sudden’ stalls. Such dynamic stall simulations are not realistic and are likely lead to negative training and negative transfer of training. With reference to Section 2.3.4 of this Opinion, in relation to (type-specific) recovery from a stall, the assessment and comments received also indicated concerns over potential negative transfer of training when using an FFS. Nevertheless, this issue has been forwarded to RMT.0196 for further consideration. SPAN-2011-020 It is recommended that the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) establish requirements for flight simulators so as to allow simulator training to cover sustained takeoff stalls that reproduce situations that could exceed the flight envelope limits. (REC 20/11) Reference: Report A-032/2008 - Accident involving a McDonnell Douglas DC-9-82 (MD-82) aircraft, registration EC-HFP, at Madrid-Barajas Airport, on 20 August 2008, published by the Spanish Accident Investigation Authority (CIAIAC) on 01 August 2011 Outcome the EASA EASA and the RMG would like to highlight that from a training perspective safety assessment it is not possible to simulate ‘sustained take-off’ stalls. Such dynamic stall simulations are not realistic and are likely lead to negative training and negative transfer of training. With reference to Section 2.3.4 of this Opinion, in relation to (type-specific) recovery from a stall, the assessment and comments received also indicated concerns over potential negative transfer of training when using an FFS. Nevertheless, this issue has been forwarded to RMT.0196 for further consideration. An approach-to-stall in take-off configuration is mandated within an FFS. The procedure to recover from an approach to stall is the same as for stall (Part-FCL Appendix 9, Section B, Paragraph 6, Exercise 3.7). MALI-2016-005 The Commission d’Enquête sur les Accidents et Incidents d’Aviation Civile du Mali and the BEA recommend that the FAA and EASA require that these specific features of MD 80 type aeroplanes be taught during type rating and recurrent crew training. Reference: Final Report on the accident involving a McDonnell Douglas DC- 9-83 (MD-83) aircraft, registration EC-LTV, near Gossi (MALI), on 24 July 2014, published by the Ministere de l’equipement, des transports et du desenclavement, Commission d’enquete sur les accidents et incidents d’aviation civile, Republique du Mali, on 22 April 2016 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 27 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Outcome the EASA EASA and the RMG consider that training on these MD 80 specific features safety assessment should be part of the ‘area of special emphasis’ under the OSD, or alternatively, by the safety risk management system of the ATO or operator delivering type-specific training. Consequently, this recommendation is not addressed with this Opinion, which aims to cater for all types of aeroplanes. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 28 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.5. Regulatory impact assessment (RIA) 2.5.1 Issues to be addressed Safety issue The safety analysis in NPA 2015-13, based on a worldwide analysis covering 10 years (2006–2015), concluded that 30 % of the fatal accidents worldwide in CAT operations with aeroplanes can be attributed to LOC-I. This Opinion provides an updated information for the EASA MS scope: over the period 2012–2016, 50 % of the total fatal accidents involving an EASA CAT aeroplane operator (2 out of 4) were attributed to LOC-I. For worldwide CAT aeroplane operations, this represents 25 % of the total number of fatal accidents in the same time frame (17 out of 67 fatal accidents). The analysis of LOC-I between 2009 and 2014 on Commercial Air Transport — Fixed Wing showed that the most catastrophic scenarios are related to the encounter of icing conditions in flight and to the inadequate execution of go around during the final approach. Within these two scenarios, the most frequent contributor was the inadequate monitoring of equipment and instrument by the flight crew, followed by the non-adherence to or the lack of operator’s policy (icing) and by the job-related distractions such as spatial disorientation, inadequate trimming of the horizontal stabiliser, and errors in flight mode management (go-around). The analysis was done on 65 LOC-I occurrences worldwide. This is an average of 11 per annum; however, the true figure is likely to be higher as complete data was not available for 2013 and 2014. The number of LOC-I accidents and serious incidents involving EASA MS operators each year is fairly consistent over the period considered. There are approximately 3 serious incidents and 1 accident annually. The analysis showed as well that the top five safety issues21 identified, having a direct contribution to the fatal outcome of a LOC-I occurrence, were the inadequate: — functioning of management system and oversight; — CRM22, communication and decision-making; — knowledge of aircraft system and associated procedures; — Crew awareness; and — management of adverse weather conditions. 21 The analysis has particularised the list of safety issues compiled from safety recommendations in the context of LOC-I analysis. The top five safety issues are the ones contributing most frequently to LOC-I fatal accidents. 22 Further reference on CRM: RMT.0411 (OPS.094) on ‘Crew Resource Management (CRM) Training’ started on 12 November 2012 and concluded with the publication of two ED Decisions in 2015. The task proposed to incorporate new items in the present applicable framework on CRM training. Such items are provisions for CRM trainers and examiners, competency-based CRM training, surprise and startle effects, single flight crew CRM training, overview of operators by the competent authority, etc. The changes are considered to establish a more practicable and more effective framework for CRM training. These changes will provide operators with more reliable tools to mitigate further CRM-related risks and hazards and, therefore, are expected to increase safety during all phases of flight. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 29 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Safety Recommendations A detailed presentation of the SRs that were taken into consideration for this RMT, as well as the outcome of their assessment, can be found in Section 2.4. European Plan for Aviation Safety (EPAS) In addition, the importance of the safety issue is also emphasised in the EPAS through the following LOC-I-related action items: — AER4.8 Response to upset conditions in order to prevent LOC-I; — AER4.10 Response to unusual attitudes in order to prevent LOC-I; and — AER4.16 Flight crew are not adequately trained to respond to loss of control. EASA Annual Safety Review LOC-I is also a recurring safety issue highlighted in the EASA annual safety reviews, emphasising further the importance of this issue. Regulatory harmonisation issue The safety issue is also acknowledged by ICAO and other international aviation regulatory bodies, such as the FAA. In 2014, ICAO published amendments to Annex 1 and 6 detailing SARPs related to LOCART. The amendments to ICAO Annex 1 mandate UPRT for MPL and multi-pilot aeroplane type rating training courses, and recommend UPRT in an aeroplane for CPL training courses. In addition, the amendments to ICAO Annex 6 contain requirements on UPRT programmes for CAT operators using aeroplanes. The ICAO Doc 9868 ‘Procedures for Air Navigation Services — Training (PANS-TRG)’ also includes UPRT provisions for MPL, CPL, initial multi-pilot type rating, recurrent, as well as instructor and inspector qualifications. In addition, ICAO published Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’ which contains further Guidance Material. In 2013, the FAA published Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 121.423 ‘Pilot: Extended Envelope Training’ and Advisory Circular (AC) 120-109 ‘Stall and Stick Pusher training’, and in 2015 the AC 120- 111 ‘Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’. 2.5.1.1 Safety risk assessment Globally, there is a rate of 1 fatal accident per year as a result of LOC-I and there is a substantial number of SRs as well as EASA analyses indicating the existence of significant safety risks related to LOC-I. The safety risks that have been identified by the LOCART and ICATEE WGs, and have been confirmed by the RMG experts, are the following: — Existing licensing training requirements do not provide:  adequate in-depth theoretical knowledge instruction to ensure awareness/recognition of developing or developed upsets, and to ensure knowledge of appropriate strategies to return an aeroplane to safe flight; and  adequate in-depth flight training aimed at providing pilots with all the necessary skills to prevent an upset from developing or to recover from developed upsets. — Existing initial type rating training courses do not provide: TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 30 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what  adequate in-depth type-specific theoretical knowledge instruction needed to ensure that pilots are aware of/recognise developing or developed upsets and to ensure knowledge of appropriate strategies to return an aeroplane to safe flight; and  adequate in-depth FSTD flight training aimed at providing pilots with all the necessary skills to prevent an upset from developing or to recover from developed upsets. Therefore, the probability of occurrence is assessed as ‘improbable’ and the severity of occurrence as ‘catastrophic’. Table 1: Safety risk matrix Probability of Severity of occurrence occurrence Negligible Minor Major Hazardous Catastrophic 0.5 2 3 5 8 Extremely 1 improbable Improbable 2 16 Remote 3 Occasional 4 Frequent 5 As regards the GA, according to the EASA safety assessment, there are 1 067 fatal accidents and 8 047 non-fatal accidents linked to LOC-I (2007–2016). Out of these accidents: — 50 % (534) of the fatal accidents; and — 24 % (1 931) of the non-fatal accidents resulted in aircraft upset in flight. There are 28 fatal accidents where human factors have been directly identified in the last five years and could be mitigated with further training. When looking at the operational safety issues there are 171 fatal accidents in the last five years that could be mitigated with further training. Thereof are 87 directly linked to Aircraft upset and 29 to various aircraft handling issues including Handling of Technical Failures, Approach Path Management and Control of Manual Flight Path. The most recurrent issues that should be addressed by UPRT for the GA according to the area and ranged by number of fatal accidents are: TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 31 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Operational issues (1) intentional low flying; (2) flight planning and preparation; (3) handling of technical failures; (4) turbulence; (5) approach path management; (6) control of manual flight path; (7) crosswind; (8) baggage and cargo loading; and (9) icing on ground. Human issues (1) perception and situational awareness; (2) decision-making and planning; (3) experience, training and competence of individuals; (4) human performance; (5) personal pressure and arousal; (6) CRM and operational communication; (7) navigation; and (8) knowledge of aircraft systems and procedures. 2.5.1.2 Who is affected? This proposal will affect pilots, instructors, examiners, ATOs, operators and competent authorities. 2.5.1.3 How could the issue/problem evolve? If no action is taken, the high risk of LOC-I events will remain as also highlighted in EPAS and the EASA Annual Safety Review. Furthermore, the aforementioned SRs addressed to EASA will not be dealt with. Moreover, the EU aviation regulations will not be harmonised with the ICAO SARPs and aligned with other aviation authorities’ regulations, such as those of the FAA. 2.5.2 Objectives Refer to Section 2.2. 2.5.3 Overview of the comments received in the public consultation phase on the RIA The stakeholders welcomed the introduction of UPRT. There were no comments as regards the policy options. The major comments related to underestimated impacts of policy Option 2 on the GA community. The stakeholders argued that the introduction of the UPRT for LAPL(A) and PPL(A) would create a substantial administrative burden and considerable additional cost which would be faced by TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 32 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what many registered facilities (RFs)/ATOs. Therefore, the RIA was revised to review the impact on the GA community. 2.5.4 Policy options Table 2 shows the options against the SRs. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 33 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Table 2: Selected policy options Option 1 Option 2 (= Option 1 + LAPL(A), PPL(A)) Single-pilot aeroplanes operated in CPL(A) and ATP (A) training multi-pilot operation, single-pilot high- Objectives MPL training courses LAPL(A) PPL(A) courses performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot type rating courses To ensure adequate transposition of the ICAO amendments into the European Union requirements including: — TK LOs and examination of upset prevention and recovery — Class- or type-specific UPRT are included in RMT.0595. integrated into respective class and — UPRT in an aeroplane for CPL type rating courses. N/A — Basic UPRT elements integrated into existing flight training. and MPL and FSTD UPRT for type rating training. — Advanced UPRT course in an aeroplane mandated for the — The advanced UPRT course in an ATP and MPL training courses, and is optional for CPL(A) aeroplane is a prerequisite for the training courses. respective type rating courses. — Existing flight instructors have the privileges to deliver basic — Existing CRIs/TRIs/SFIs have the UPRT elements. privilege to deliver class- or type- — Existing flight instructors have the privileges to deliver basic UPRT elements. — Requirements for flight and FSTD — ATOs will need to ensure instructor standardisation in the specific UPRT. instructors. context of delivering basic UPRT. — ATOs will need to ensure instructor standardisation in the context of — ATO will need to ensure instructor delivering basic UPRT. — New instructor privilege in case of delivering the advanced standardisation in the context of UPRT course in an aeroplane. delivering basic UPRT. To consider whether type rating and/or operator training programmes should consist of theoretical and practical training that includes: Aerodynamics TK and flight Aerodynamics TK and flight Class- or type-specific UPRT including N/A Training in flight mechanics. training. training. emphasis on type-specific aerodynamics. Training in all applicable flight control If applicable, class- or type-specific UPRT laws of the aeroplane type and the including emphasis on mode degradations N/A N/A N/A operational consequences resulting and immediate handling of operational from law degradations. consequences. Training in all the relevant N/A Class- or type-specific UPRT including specificities of the specific aeroplane N/A N/A emphasis on type-specific aerodynamics. type. The RMG experts indicated that stall events during the take-off phase are difficult, if not impossible, to develop. Recovery exercises from (impending) A stall event during take-off in the clean stall situations during the take-off N/A N/A N/A configuration is unrealistic, and would and the approach phase. lead to negative training. Consequently, stall events in the take-off, approach and cruise configuration are proposed. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 34 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Manual aeroplane handling exercises and techniques during stall prevention and stall recovery N/A N/A Class- or type-specific UPRT N/A scenarios including exercises at high altitude. Class- or type-specific UPRT including Realistic training scenarios that The startle and surprise effects are likely to be experienced by training scenarios that attempt to expose N/A contain startle/surprise effects. pilots undergoing the recovery training in an aeroplane. students to the startle/surprise effect. Class- or type-specific UPRT with More emphasis on manual aeroplane increased emphasis on manual handling handling skills and, for initial type exercises. rating training, a requirement to N/A N/A During the flight training, a go-around is N/A conduct a go-around in the mandated with all engines operating with aeroplane with all engines operating. the intent to expose pilots to somatogravic illusion. Training on the conduct of a go- EASA and the RMG experts do not believe around at low speed with pitch trim that this exercise should be checked. Only in an unusual nose-up position, and a training-to-proficiency should be N/A N/A N/A consideration for including this conducted. This exercise is conducted as a exercise in the skill test or proficiency stall event during the approach in the check. landing configuration. More emphasis on the potential Class- or type-specific UPRT with degradation of situational awareness increased emphasis on flight path (basic pilot skills) and flight path N/A N/A management and manual handling skills N/A management due to the increased whilst using threat and error management flight crew reliance on aircraft (TEM) and CRM. automation. For the PPL(A) flight instruction syllabus, clarification of the intent using practical exercise examples of To be further considered by the dedicated GA task force when updating the exercise 11 ‘Spin Avoidance’ training, N/A N/A N/A AMC/GM related to the LAPL and PPL training syllabi. and a consideration for mandating these sample exercises for inclusion in the training programme. ATP(A) and CPL(A) training The RMG group experts believe that focus on upset prevention at an early stage course to include UPRT TK and will benefit a pilot later in life. EASA, based on the safety risk assessment, To assess whether UPRT provisions upset prevention flight identified the need to also introduce further LOC-I mitigating measures in the should be extended to other instruction. In addition, ATP(A) N/A N/A LAPL and PPL syllabi. This will be done by a dedicated GA task force which will licences, and to develop additional training course requires upset update the relevant AMC/GM on the LAPL and the PPL training syllabi. However, requirements accordingly. recovery training in an the advanced UPRT course in accordance with FCL.745.A is optional for PPL(A) (or aeroplane. Upset recovery LAPL(A)) and will be credited towards the ATP(A) training course. training is optional for CPL(A) TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 35 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what training course graduates. Guidance Material developed by EASA to To ensure that inspectors of ensure that inspectors have knowledge competent authorities are able to Guidance Material developed by EASA to ensure that inspectors N/A and understanding of UPRT in an FSTD, in perform adequate oversight of UPRT have knowledge and understanding of UPRT in an aeroplane, in particular the upset recovery training. including the aeroplane and FFS particular the upset recovery training. upset recovery training exercises. Note: Also similar Guidance Material included for flight operations inspectors. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 36 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.5.5 Methodology and data 2.5.5.1 Applied methodology The methodology applied for this RIA in order to assess the impacts is the multi-criteria analysis (MCA), which allows comparing all options by scoring them against a set of criteria. MCA covers a wide range of techniques that aim to combine a range of positive and negative impacts into a single framework to allow easier comparison of the scenarios. Essentially, it applies cost–benefit thinking to cases where there is a need to present impacts that are a mixture of qualitative, quantitative and monetary data, and where there are varying degrees of certainty. The MCA key steps generally include the following: — establishing the criteria to be used to compare the options (these criteria must be measurable, at least in qualitative terms); — attributing weight to each criterion to reflect its relative importance to the decision; — scoring how well each option meets the criteria; the scoring needs to be relative to the baseline scenario; — ranking the options by combining their respective weights and scores; and — performing sensitivity analysis on the scoring to test the robustness of the ranking. The criteria used to compare the options were derived from the Basic Regulation and the guidelines for Regulatory Impact Assessment developed by the European Commission. The principal objective of EASA is to ‘establish and maintain a high uniform level of safety’ (Article 2(1) of the Basic Regulation). As additional objectives, the Basic Regulation identifies environmental, economic, proportionality and harmonisation aspects which are reflected below (apart from environmental aspects which are not relevant for this RIA). The scoring of the impacts uses a simple scale with ‘+’ and ‘–’ to indicate the positive and negative impacts. This was found to be a proportionate way to assess the impacts, instead of analysing impacts with a scale from, e.g., – 5 to + 5 (very negative to very positive). As shown in detail in Table 3 the scoring of the impacts uses a scale of – 5 to + 5 to indicate the negative and positive impacts of each option (i.e. from ‘very low’ to ‘very high’ negative/positive impacts). Intermediate levels of benefits are termed ‘low, ‘medium’ and ‘high’ to provide for a total of five levels in each one of the negative and positive directions, with also a ‘no impact’ score possible. Table 3: Scale with scoring of the impacts Negative Positive Score Score impact impact -5 Very high negative impact +5 Very high positive impact -4 High negative impact +4 High positive impact -3 Medium negative impact +3 Medium positive impact -2 Low negative impact +2 Low positive impact TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 37 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what -1 Very low negative impact +1 Very low positive impact 0 Neutral/Insignificant 2.5.5.2 Data collection The data requested for the analysis is based on expert judgement and estimates gathered through a survey addressed to stakeholders. Expert judgement The RMG consisted of 15 members, including the (co-)chairs of the ICATEE and LOCART WGs, with a variety of expertise in initial licensing and type rating training courses, as well as operator training. In addition, the RMG meetings included experts from the original equipment manufacturers and competent authorities, and were observed by the FAA and several EASA experts. All members contributed actively by providing the necessary expertise. RMT.0581: UPRT survey The survey was published on 26 January 2015 for a period of 2,5 months, and expired on 17 April 2015. It was addressed to the Rulemaking Advisory Group (RAG) and to the Flight Crew Licensing & Air Operations (FCL&OPS) Thematic Advisory Group (TAG) members and observers. A total of 61 responses were received from operators, competent authorities and pilot unions (including third- country parties). Number of answers per stakeholder type CA, 1 Manufacturers, 3 Airlines, 23 ATOs, 34 The feedback received provided limited data; it gave, however, some insight into the current developments in relation to the extent of implementation of UPRT based on the ICAO SARPs. 10 % of the ATOs which have answered have already developed UPRT on a voluntary basis. 65 % of the ATOs not having developed UPRT are not yet in the process of developing UPRT elements. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 38 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.5.6 Analysis of impacts 2.5.6.1 Safety impact Option 0 The high risk of LOC-I events/occurrences remains. CPL(A) and The safety level is expected to increase by improving existing training ATP(A) training standards for the CPL(A) and ATP(A) training courses, based on the ICAO courses SARPs and on the ICATEE and LOCART WG recommendations. The safety level is expected to increase by improving existing training standards for the MPL training courses, based on the ICAO SARPs and on the ICATEE and LOCART WG recommendations. MPL training courses It should be highlighted that upset recovery training was already mandated for the MPL; however, the additional UPRT requirements and harmonisation with the future CPL(A) and ATP(A) training course requirements are foreseen to increase the safety level. Training courses The safety level is expected to increase by improving existing training for type ratings standards for said type rating training course, based on the ICAO SARPs for single-pilot and on the ICATEE and LOCART WG recommendations. Option 1 aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operation, single- pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes The safety level is expected to increase by improving existing standards for flight instructors and FSTD instructors delivering said type rating Instructors training courses, based on the ICAO SARPs and on the ICATEE and LOCART WG recommendations. Enhanced knowledge and understanding should contribute to an CA inspectors increased safety level through better oversight. Option 2 LAPL(A) and The safety level is expected to further increase by improving existing (= Option 1 + training standards, mainly focused on upset prevention, for the LAPL(A) LAPL(A), PPL(A) training and PPL(A) training courses, based on the GA task force PPL(A) training courses recommendations. courses) According to the EASA safety analysis, the potential safety benefit brought by Option 1 could lead to a reduction of the current safety issues by approximately 40 %, as the task is dealing with training covering several aspects, affecting many stakeholders and therefore concerning several safety issues. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 39 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Assuming that 40 %23 of the safety issues leading to accidents could be mitigated with Option 1, the final outcome might lead to a reduction of up to: — 40 % of the 11 fatal accidents registered (4 fatal accidents); — 40 % of the 86 non-fatal accidents registered (34 non-fatal accidents); and — 40 % of the 201 serious incidents registered (80 serious incidents). As regards Option 2, EASA and the RMG experts believe that the safety level will markedly increase by the proposed amendments in Option 2. The amendments are based on the ICAO SARPs and on the ICATEE and LOCART WG recommendations. Moreover, EASA decided to also revise the AMC/GM containing the training syllabi for the LAPL(A) and the PPL(A), based on the recommendations of a dedicated GA task force, as explained in Section 2.3.1. In terms of human factors, according to the EASA safety analysis, the potential safety benefit brought by Option 2 could contribute to mitigating 28 fatal accidents. As regards operational safety issues, 87 fatal accidents directly linked to aircraft upset were identified. Option 2 is, therefore, considered the most appropriate one as it further improves safety both for commercial and non-commercial GA pilots. Furthermore, It will improve the existing training standards for the LAPL(A), the PPL(A), the CPL(A), the ATP(A), the MPL, single-pilot class and type ratings used in multi-pilot operations, single pilot high-performance complex aeroplane and multi-pilot aeroplane type rating training courses, and for the respective instructors. The safety impact is assessed as follows: Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots Safety Safety risks Positive safety benefits due to Further increased by improving impact remain unchange. the improved existing training existing training standards, which standards which may contribute may contribute to mitigating 28 to mitigating 4 fatal accidents, 34 fatal accidents related to human non-fatal accidents and 80 factors and 87 fatal accidents serious incidents related to operational safety issues. -2 +1 +2 2.5.6.2 Social impact Option 0 No impact 23 According to experts’ judgement. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 40 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what CPL(A) and Mandated only for the ATP(A) training course, advanced UPRT in an aeroplane is believed to provide a majority of student pilots with ATP(A) training increased resilience against the psychological and physiological effects courses often associated with dynamic aeroplane upset conditions. MPL training Negligible impact as UPRT in an aeroplane was already partially mandated courses for the MPL. Training courses The advanced UPRT course in an aeroplane is a prerequisite for the type for type ratings rating concerned. Therefore, PPL(A) holders and CPL(A) training course for single-pilot graduates will have to complete this training prior to commencing the said type rating. aeroplanes As mentioned already, advanced UPRT is believed to provide a majority of operated in student pilots with increased resilience against the psychological and Option 1 multi-pilot physiological effects often associated with aeroplane upset conditions. operation, single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes The instructors’ scope of competence will increase for a small percentage of existing instructors with the newly introduced advanced UPRT course Instructors in an aeroplane. A positive side effect is an increased interest for the instructors themselves and a higher appeal for potential new instructors. CA inspectors No impact. Option 2 (= Option 1 + LAPL(A) and LAPL(A), PPL(A) training No further impact, apart from those identified in Option 1 PPL(A) training courses courses) The requirement in FCL.745.A for the advanced UPRT course in an aeroplane, which includes potential manoeuvres with more than 90 degrees bank is believed to provide student pilots with increased resilience against the psychological and physiological effects often associated with aeroplane upset conditions, thereby enabling pilots to better apply effective strategies and standard operating procedures (SOPs) to recover from actual developed upsets. Hence, the overall social impact in both Options 1 and 2 is positive. The table below summarises the social impact per option: Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots Social No impact Increased resilience of the pilots Same as Option 1 impact and improvement of their competency TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 41 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots 0 +2 +2 2.5.6.3 Economic impact Implementation costs Table 4 — Unit cost and assumption per option item Option 0 No impact — Additional TK training and examination cost estimated at EUR 750 per student pilot due to the introduction of additional UPRT TK LOs. — Minimal additional training cost related to the integration of basic CPL(A) and UPRT elements into the practical flight training. ATP(A) training courses — ATP(A) training course only, additional flight training cost related to the advanced UPRT in an aeroplane estimated at EUR 3 500 per student pilot (this includes also aerobatic category aeroplanes directly purchased by the ATO or subcontracting this activity to a third party by the ATO, as appropriate). — Additional TK training and examination cost estimated at EUR 750 per student pilot due to the introduction of additional UPRT TK LOs. MPL training — Minimal additional training cost related to the integration of basic courses UPRT elements into the practical flight training. Note: the advanced UPRT in an aeroplane was already mandated for the MPL, therefore the impact is likely to be minimal. Training courses Option 1 — ATOs providing type rating courses will have to amend their training for type ratings syllabi to include the class/type specific UPRT provisions and to for single-pilot ensure that their instructors are adequately trained. The foreseen aeroplanes changes are accommodated through the usual update process of operated in training courses. ATOs are also free to integrate more than one multi-pilot prevention element into a single training session. operation, single- — Additional TK and flight training cost estimated at EUR 1 500 per pilot high- student pilot due to the introduction of UPRT. (EUR 1 000 for performance additional FFS session + additional EUR 350 TK training cost + EUR 150 complex for one-day extra accommodation = EUR 1 500) aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes — Training costs for existing instructors are estimated to represent 1 day per instructor at an approximate one-off cost of EUR 500 per Instructors instructor. — Only an estimated subset of 10 % of these instructors will be required to undergo the regulatory additional instructor training in an TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 42 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what aeroplane to gain the privilege to deliver the advanced UPRT course for ATP(A) training course students. It is anticipated to last 1–2 weeks, and is likely to involve ground and flight training in an aerobatic category aeroplane at an estimated one-off cost of EUR 4 000 per instructor. — The additional FSTD instructor training provided by the ATO, based on the ATO procedures (OM-D), may take several days and is likely to involve ground and flight training in an FFS at an estimated one-off total cost of EUR 2 500 per FSTD instructor. There are approximately 24 50 000 flight crew members in the EU and it is roughly estimated 25 that there are 10 active FSTD instructors for every 100 flight crew members, which makes a total of 5 000 active FSTD instructors. One-off additional training cost of maximum EUR 2 500 related to CA inspectors developing inspectors’ knowledge and understanding of UPRT. Additional training cost of EUR 200 related to TK training and to the integration of mainly upset prevention elements into the practical flight Option 2 training. (= Option 1 Additional administrative costs for training providers (RFs/ATOs) to LAPL(A) and + LAPL(A), comply with the UPRT requirements are considered negligible, because PPL(A) training the existing training exercises already include UPRT elements. Any further PPL(A) courses amendments to the course syllabi, as recommended by the dedicated GA training task force, are unlikely to lead to fundamental changes to the course courses) structure, especially regarding the course duration. This may result in some additional cost. These costs are to be further analysed with the publication of the associated ED Decision in due course. 24 Source: ‘Study on the effects of the implementation of the EU aviation common market on employment and working conditions in the Air Transport Sector over the period 1997/2010’, Table 4.5. 25 ‘Active’ means instructors providing FSTD training on behalf of an operator. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 43 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Table 5 — Basic data and assumption on number of pilots and instructors for aeroplane in the EASA Member States Item Estimates for 2014 Pilots licences MPL 500 The average annual number of new MLP students in the EASA Member States for the next years is also 500 ATPL(A) 70 000 CPL(A) 40 000 ATPL(A) + CPL(A) 110 000 PPL(A) 100 000 Instructors Total number of instructors 20 000 Reasoning: there are about 12 000 flight examiners in the EASA Member States => it is assumed that the number of instructors is almost 2 times more. Total number of new instructors able 200 to provide recovery training for ATP(A) training CAs Total number of CA staff 7 000 OPS inspectors 350 5 % of CA staff The figures in Table 5 form the basis of Table 6 below. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 44 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Table 6 — Total implementation cost impact per option item On the basis of a 10-year appraisal period Cost Cost impact per option Assumption Estimated Unit Type of Total Potential Comments on Item number of cost cost (one- annual maximum the potential persons subject off/ costs implementation maximum cost to this option recurrent) cost for 10 years impacts item per year Cost impact per option item 1 Option 1: CPL(A) training 1.0 % Estimated number of 1 100 750 Recurrent 825 000 8 250 000 30 % of ATOs courses CPL(A) students per year have already in the next year for the implemented or EASA Member States started to implement UPRT; in that case, the cost impact should be lower than estimated. 2 Option 1: ATP(A) training 2.0 % Estimated number of 2 200 4 250 Recurrent 9 350 000 93 500 000 30 % of ATOs course ATP(A) students per year have already in the next year for the implemented or EASA Member States. started to Pilot career lasts implement approximately UPRT; in that 30 years, i.e. 2 % per case, the cost year of new pilots to impact should renew the be lower than current number of pilots estimated. 3 Option 1: MPL training 500 Estimated number of 500 750 Recurrent 375 000 3 750 000 These cost impacts courses MPL students per year in are likely to be the next year for the already included in EASA Member States the current training TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 45 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what programmes 4 Option 1: Single-pilot 50 % It is estimated that 50 % 1 650 1 500 Recurrent 2 475 000 24 750 000 30 % of ATOs have class/type ratings used in of the annual CPL and already in multi-pilot operations, ATPL pilots would follow implemented or single-pilot high- TR courses started to implement performance complex UPRT; in that case, aeroplanes used and the cost impact multi-pilot aeroplane should be lower than type rating training estimated. courses 5 Option 1: Training cost See table above for 20 000 500 One-off Not 10 000 000 for current instructors number of instructors applicable 6 Option 1: New instructors See table above for 2 00 4 000 One-off Not 800 000 This cost occurs in able to provide recovery number of new applicable the transition time training in an aeroplane instructors to allow instructors for the ATP (A) training to be trained before course they have to train pilots. 7 Option 1: FSTD 10 10 active FSTD 11 000 2 500 One-off Not 27 500 000 Some FSTD instructors instructors for every 100 applicable instructors are flight crew members already currently (EASA Decision trained thanks to ED 2015/012/R) Decision Scope: ATPL + CPL 2015/012/R. Therefore, this is a potential maximum cost impact. 8 Option 1: Inspectors & 5 % Estimated share of OPS 350 2 500 Recurrent Not 875 000 CAs for OPS inspectors in CAs applicable TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 46 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 9 Option 2: LAPL(A), PPL(A) 2.5 % PPL lasts approximately 2 500 200 Recurrent 500 000 5 000 000 40 years, i.e. 2.5 % per year of new pilot to renew the current number of pilots Total cost per option over 10 years Total cost: Option 1 169 425 000 Total cost: Option 2 174 425 000 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 47 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what With the introduction of UPRT in the various courses, the economic impact of Option 1 is expected to be in the order of magnitude of EUR 169 million over 10 years, i.e. EUR 16,9 million per year. With the introduction of UPRT in the various courses, the economic impact of Option 2 is expected to be in the order of magnitude of EUR 174 million over 10 years, i.e. EUR 17,4 million per year. In order to assess the impact of these costs, the overall impact of each option is compared to the baseline costs, e.g. how much would a pilot/operator pay in addition due to the introduction of the UPRT. The comparison below is made on the basis of the additional unit cost for UPRT in Option 1 and Option 2 considering the baseline costs. Baseline costs The costs for acquiring CPL(A), ATPL(A) and MPL and type rating are estimated to be EUR 120 000 (one- off cost and recurrent cost for revalidation of type rating)26. The costs would be borne by both pilots and operators. It is assumed that pilots are always funding themselves for acquiring the licence (the unit cost is EUR 80 00027) and in 90 % of the cases for acquiring type rating (e.g. 90 % of unit cost EUR 40 000 which is equivalent to EUR 36 000). In the other 10 % of the cases (e.g. 10 % of unit cost EUR 40 000 which is equivalent to EUR 4 000), the operators are funding the costs for acquiring the type rating. Therefore, the baseline costs are split (Table 5a). These costs are spread over a period of less than 2 years (minimum 18 months for licence and 2 months for type rating). Table 6a — Baseline unit costs for pilots to acquire CPL(A), ATPL(A) and MPL and type rating and for operators to revalidate the type rating Unit costs for pilots Unit cost for Total unit cost pilots (EUR) operators (EUR) &operator Baseline unit costs for CPL(A); 116 000 ATPL(A); and (80 000 licence + 4 000 MPL and type 90 % of the type (10 % of the type rating rating) rating cost) 120 000 As regards acquiring PPL and type rating, the costs are estimated as EUR 30 000, whereas around EUR 10 000 is the PPL and EUR 20 000 is type rating28. These costs are borne entirely by the pilots. The costs for acquiring the PPL and the type rating are spread over a 5-month period29 (3 months for the licence and 2 months for the type rating). 26 ATO data 2016 27 ATO data 2016 for CPL(A); ATPL(A) and MPL 28 ATO data 2016 for PPL. As regards type rating, the amount is taken as average to reflect the variety of the type rating courses and costs. 29 ATO data 2016 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 48 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Table 6b — Baseline unit costs for pilots to acquire LAPL(A), PPL(A) and type rating Unit costs for pilots (EUR) Baseline unit costs for LAPL(A), PPL(A) 30 000 (10 000 licence + and type rating 20 000 type rating) The baseline costs for Option 1 and Option 2 are accordingly: Table 6c — Baseline unit costs for Option 1 and Option 2 Unit costs for pilots Unit cost for Total baseline unit (EUR) operators (EUR) costs Baseline unit costs — Option 1 116 000 4 000 120 000 Baseline unit costs — Option 2 146 000 n/a 146 000 It is considered that the costs for Option 1 and Option 2 are spread over in a period of 2 years in total. Overall impact of Option 1 (comparison between unit costs for Option 1 and baseline costs) Regarding Option 1, the additional unit cost for UPRT is estimated at EUR 5 583 per licence and type rating training (see Table 5d). The costs would be borne by both pilots and operators. The costs for pilots are as follows: — One-off training cost for current and new instructors to provide advanced UPRT in an aeroplane for the ATP(A) training course (cost items Nos 5 and 6 of Table 5). It is assumed that 1 instructor trains 12 pilots. The total cost for training current and new instructors is EUR 4 500 (sum of cost items Nos 5 and 6 of Table 5). This amount is divided by 12 pilots to get the unit cost per pilot (EUR 4 500/12 pilots = EUR 375 per pilot) — Recurrent cost for UPRT as part of the ATPL, MPL, CPL (cost item No 2 of Table 5). In compliance with the provisional data, it is estimated that this cost is EUR 4 25030 per pilot for a 2-year period. — Recurrent cost for single-pilot class/type ratings used in in multi-pilot operations, single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplane type rating training courses (cost item No 4 of Table 5). In compliance with the provisional data, it is estimated that this cost is EUR 1 500 per course. It is assumed that in every course there are 2 students and the cost per pilot is EUR 750 (EUR 1 500/2 pilots = EUR 750 per pilot). However, 90 % of this amount will be covered by the pilots and 10 % by operators, following the assumption above. Therefore, the cost for the pilot is (750*90 % = EUR 675 per pilot). 30 The cost for ATPL covers the MPL and CPL cost. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 49 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Summing up, the total cost for pilots is EUR 375 as an one-off cost and EUR 4 925 as a recurrent cost (spread in a 2-year period). These costs are considered maximum, because 30 % of ATOs have probably already implemented or started to implement UPRT31. The costs for operators are as follows: — One-off training cost for FSTD instructors (cost item No 7 of Table 5). It is assumed that 1 FSTD instructor trains 12 pilots. The total cost for training FSTD instructors (as per Table 5) is EUR 2 500. This amount is divided by 12 pilots to get the unit cost per pilot (EUR 2 500/12 pilots = EUR 208 per pilot). — Recurrent cost for single-pilot class/type ratings used in multi-pilot operations, single pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplane type rating training courses: In compliance with the data above, 10 % of this amount will be covered by operators. Therefore, the cost is 750*10 % = EUR 75 per pilot. The total cost that the operator needs to pay is EUR 208 as an one-off cost and EUR 75 as a recurrent cost. This is a potential maximum cost impact, because some FSTD instructors have already been trained following the issuance of ED Decision 2015/012/R. Table 6d — Costs for UPRT for Option 1 for pilots/operators Unit costs for Unit cost for Total unit cost for pilots Type of costs pilots (EUR) operators (EUR) and operators Capital (one-off) costs (costs for 375 208 583 instructors to train pilots) 32 Recurrent costs for ATPL (cost only for pilots for a 2-year 4 250 4 250 period) Recurrent costs for type rating 675 75 750 (costs for pilots and operators) Total unit costs for UPRT for 5 300 283 5 583 Option 1 Overall impact of Option 2 (comparison between unit costs for Option 2 and baseline costs) Regarding Option 2, the additional unit cost for UPRT for GA pilots is estimated at EUR 200 (cost item No 9 of Table 5) for LAPL(A), PPL(A) and type rating training (see Table 5e). These costs will be spread over a 5-month period (3 months for the licence and 2 months for the type rating). Table 6e — Costs for UPRT for Option 2 for GA pilots Unit costs for Unit cost for Total unit cost for pilots Type of costs pilots (EUR) operators (EUR) and operators Recurrent costs for UPRT for LAPL(A), PPL(A) (costs only for 200 n/a 200 pilots) 31 Based on the survey results 32 1 instructor trains 12 pilots. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 50 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what The total additional unit costs for Option 2 (Option 1 + LAPL(A), PPL(A)) are estimated to be EUR 5 783 in total (see Table 5f). The additional recurrent costs will spread over a 2-year period. Table 6f — Costs for UPRT for Option 2 for pilots/operators Unit costs for Unit cost for Total unit cost for pilots Costs pilots (EUR) operators (EUR) and operators Option 1 total unit costs for 5 300 283 5 583 UPRT Recurrent costs for LAPL(A), 200 n/a 200 PPL(A) (costs only for pilots) Option 2 total unit costs for 5 500 283 5 783 UPRT Apart from these costs, as mentioned in the economic impact, there are additional administrative costs for the training providers (RFs and ATOs) to comply with the UPRT requirements which are not quantified. Said additional costs are considered significant, according to the GA community assessment, thus imposing an additional burden on them33. Non-quantifiable costs/benefits In addition, it should be highlighted that the insurance cost for operators may be reduced as a consequence of pilots being better trained to cope with developing and developed upsets. This is not estimated in this economic impact section due to lack of information. Moreover, the administrative costs for the GA pilots to comply with the UPRT requirements are not quantified, but assessed in qualitative terms. Conclusion Comparing the unit costs for UPRT for Option 1 and Option 2 with regard to the baseline costs (Table 5g), we conclude that there is a slight advantage for Option 2. Overall, there is a medium negative economic impact for the CAT pilots (Table 5g) and a minor negative economic impact for the operators (EUR 283 per operator) which will be negligible compared to the operator’s turnover. In regard to GA pilots, a dedicated GA task force will further consider the introduction of mitigating measures within the LAPL and PPL training syllabi on request of EASA, which may lead to additional economic cost. These costs are to be further analysed with the publication of the associated ED Decision in due course. 33 Stakeholder feedback on NPA 2015-13 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 51 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Table 6g — Overall impact of Option 1 as regards the baseline costs for CAT pilots Costs Unit costs for pilots (EUR) Baseline unit costs for Option 1 116 000 Unit costs for UPRT for Option 1 5 300 Overall impact of Option 1 (unit costs for Option 1/baseline costs) 4.57 % Table 6j — Overall impact of UPRT as regards the baseline costs for GA pilots34 Costs Unit costs for pilots (EUR) Baseline unit costs for 30 000 LAPL(A), PPL(A) and type rating Recurrent costs for UPRT 200 for LAPL(A), PPL(A) (costs only for pilots) Overall impact of UPRT for GA pilots 0.67 % The table below summarises the economic impact per option: Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots Economic No impact Total costs: circa EUR 16.9 Total costs: circa EUR 17.4 million impact million per year/a total cost of per year/a total cost of EUR 174 EUR 169 million for the 10-year million for the 10-year period for period for the implementation of the implementation of Option 2 Option 1 Leading to a 0.7 % increase in the Leading to a 4.5 % increase in costs for the UPRT implementation the costs for the UPRT at the expense of GA pilots (spread implementation at the expense over 2 years’ time); minor negative of pilots intending to operate for operators; administrative commercially (spread over 2 burden for GA not quantified years’ time); minor negative for operators 0 -3 -3 34 These figures are indicative only and are subject to change based on the outcome of the GA Task force recommendations. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 52 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.5.6.4 General Aviation (GA) and proportionality issues Option 0 No impact CPL(A) and ATP (A) training courses MPL training courses Training courses for type Not applicable Option 1 ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operation, single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes Instructors CA inspectors Option 2 This option envisages minor changes in the PPL(A) and LAPL(A) training syllabi to reinforce the UPRT aspects (at AMC level). (= Option 1 LAPL(A) and PPL(A) training These changes should be compatible with the GA Roadmap + LAPL(A), and are to be based on the final recommendations from the PPL(A) courses dedicated GA task force. The actual impacts of these training recommendations will be analysed with the publication of the courses) associated ED Decision in due course. Option 1 will not affect GA significantly as the UPRT is mainly focused on CPL(A), ATPL(A) and MPL, and on type rating training courses. The advanced UPRT course in an aeroplane according to FCL.745.A is optional for LAPL(A) and PPL(A), and may be credited towards an integrated ATP(A) training course. Only PPL(A) pilots wishing to obtain a type rating will be required complete advanced UPRT in an aeroplane in accordance with FCL.745. A as a prerequisite for their first (multi-pilot) class/type rating. Option 2 will affect GA through some additional UPRT, focused mainly on upset prevention. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 53 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what The table below summarises the impact on GA per option: Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots GA impact No impact Not applicable The proposed changes should be proportionate to the GA, and therefore compatible with the GA Roadmap. 0 0 +1 2.5.6.5 Impact on better regulation and harmonisation Regulatory drift and lack of harmonisation will occur if this option is chosen. ICAO requires Option 0 UPRT for MPL and for initial multi-pilot type rating training courses, and recommends this for the CPL(A) training course. CPL(A) and ATP(A) training Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs — Annex 1 courses MPL training courses Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs — Annex 1 Training courses for type Option 1 Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs — Annex 1 ratings for single-pilot aeroplanes operated in multi-pilot operation, single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes Instructors Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs — Annex 1 CA inspectors Harmonisation with ICAO SARPs — Annexes 1 and 6 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 54 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what Option 2 (= Option 1 LAPL(A) and PPL(A) ICAO does not require UPRT for PPL(A). There should be no + LAPL(A), significant impact in terms of better regulation and PPL(A) training courses harmonisation. training courses) The table below summarises the impact in terms of better regulation and harmonisation per option: Type of Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 impact No policy change Commercial pilots Option 1 + GA pilots Better No impact Harmonisation with the ICAO No significant impact for GA pilots regulation SARPs. and 0 +1 0 harmonisati on The requirement for the conduct of advanced UPRT course (FCL.745.A) in an aeroplane will pose initial implementation challenges for ATOs. It is a new course and requires instructor training for an extension of the instructor privileges. Moreover, for some parts of the course, aeroplanes qualified and capable of delivering the training should be utilised in order to ensure that an adequate margin of safety is maintained. EASA also proposes to set up a UPRT advisory board to support the implementation and provision of further guidance, in particular in relation to the advanced UPRT in an aeroplane. There is no danger of duplication at national level and the proposal does not have an impact on Member States’ obligations towards ICAO. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 55 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.5.6.6 Comparison of options Table 4 — Summary of impacts per option and per criteria Type of impacts Option 0 Option 1 Option 2 (commercial pilots) (Option 1 + GA pilots) Safety impact -2 +1 +2 Social impact 0 +2 +2 Economic impact 0 -3 -3 GA and 0 0 +1 proportionality issues Impact on better 0 +1 0 regulation and harmonisation Overall -2 +1 +2 Based on an analysis of the LOC-I occurrences in GA over the past years, it is clear that GA is also exposed to LOC-I events. In addition, the RMG experts indicated that skill-based behaviours are most often the first type of behaviour encountered when a pilot-to-be begins their training. Therefore, exposing student pilots to upset prevention training at an early stage enhances their upset prevention skills later in life. EASA and the RMG experts, therefore, believe that although ICAO has not included any UPRT provisions for PPL(A), a certain level of mitigating measures should be included in these proposals. EASA and the RMG experts, therefore, agreed to propose Option 2 as the best option which will include a revision of the LAPL(A) and PPL(A) training syllabi at AMC level in order to further develop existing exercises to include UPRT elements. In this regard, a dedicated GA task force will further consider the introduction of mitigating measures within the LAPL and PPL training syllabi on request of EASA, which may lead to additional economic cost. These costs are to be further analysed with the publication of the associated ED Decision in due course. 2.6. How do we monitor and evaluate the rules EASA foresees setting up a UPRT advisory board to support the implementation and to provide further guidance where needed. In addition, EASA intends to organise workshops to further discuss and support any implementation-related issues. The proposal might be subject to an evaluation, which will judge how well the adopted rules have performed (or are working), taking account of earlier evaluations made in this impact assessment. The evaluation will provide an evidence-based judgement of the extent to which the proposal has met the objectives effectively and efficiently. The decision whether an evaluation will be necessary will be taken based also on the monitoring results. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 56 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.7. Overview of proposed amendments 2.7.1 Amending the Aircrew Regulation — A new Article 4b will require students completing:  an ATPL integrated course;  an MPL training course; or  the training course for their first class or type rating for: o single-pilot aeroplanes, when operated in multi-pilot operation; o single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; or o multi-pilot aeroplanes to have completed UPRT in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL). Additionally, this new Article 4b will contain transitional provisions and provisions for possible crediting of UPRT completed prior to the implementation of UPRT in Part-FCL. — Article 10a will be amended to require pilot training organisations to adapt their training programmes in accordance with the new UPRT requirements no later than 8 April 2019. 2.7.2 Amendments to Annex I (Part-FCL) to the Aircrew Regulation — FCL.010 Definitions: Definition for ‘upset prevention and recovery training’ (encompassing ‘upset prevention training’ and ‘upset recovery training’) is inserted. — FCL.310 CPL — Theoretical knowledge examinations: The reference to VFR for the Communications subject is deleted. — FCL.315.A CPL — Training course: FCL.315.A is deleted as amendments to Appendix 3 are proposed instead. — FCL.410.A MPL— Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations: FCL.410.A is amended as, in parallel, respective amendments to Appendix 5 are proposed. — FCL.515 ATPL — Training course and theoretical knowledge examinations: The references to VFR and IFR for the Communications subject are deleted. — FCL.615 IR — Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction: The reference to IFR for the Communications subject is deleted. — FCL.720.A Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings — aeroplanes: The advanced UPRT course in FCL.745.A is added as a prerequisite for the first single-pilot class or type rating in multi-pilot operations, multi-pilot aeroplanes type rating and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type rating training courses. This prerequisite is to ensure that a pilot who has completed a CPL training course will also be required to undergo this training prior to commencing the type rating training course. — FCL.725.A Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and type ratings — aeroplanes: A requirement is added for delivering UPRT related to the specificities of the relevant class or type for single-pilot class or type rating in multi-pilot operations, multi-pilot TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 57 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what aeroplanes type rating and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type rating training courses. — FCL.745.A Upset prevention and recovery training course (UPRT) — aeroplanes. A new advanced UPRT course is introduced to enhance students’ resilience to the psychological and physiological aspects associated with dynamic upsets. The course is mandated for ATP integrated and MPL training courses, and as a prerequisite for the first single-pilot class or type rating in multi-pilot operations, multi-pilot aeroplanes type rating and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type rating training courses. — FCL.900 Instructor certificates. Point (b)(1) on ‘Special conditions’ is amended to be applicable also in cases where a new training course is introduced in Part-FCL. — FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors. A new point (e), containing requirements for instructors delivering training during the new FCL.745.A training course, is added. — Appendix I – Crediting of theoretical knowledge. The crediting provisions for the CPL, the ATPL and the IR are revised in order to reflect the merging of the two subjects ‘VFR communication’ and ‘IFR communication’ into one subject ‘communication’. In point 2.3, additional wording has been inserted to take into consideration differences in the IR and the CB-IR/EIR syllabus with regard to the two subjects listed. — Appendix 3 — Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL. Section A. (ATP integrated course — Aeroplanes) is amended to require students of such a course to also undergo the new UPRT course according to FCL.745.A unless such a course has already been completed before. — Appendix 5 — Integrated MPL training course. As with Appendix 3, also Appendix 5 is revised to require students of such a course to also undergo the new UPRT course according to FCL.745.A. — Appendix 9 — Training, skill test and proficiency checks for MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency checks for IRs. This appendix is amended to include UPRT for single-pilot class and type rating in multi-pilot operations, multi-pilot aeroplanes type rating and single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplane type rating training courses. The amendments include:  integration of the upset prevention elements (in AMC) using TEM, CRM and human factors,  manual flying/handling exercises;  management and handling of engine failures during final approach after passing the outer marker or 4 NM before touchdown;  stall event exercises in take-off, clean and landing configurations, and a demonstration of the type-specific characteristics during a stall event;  upset recovery exercises; and  go-arounds with all engines operating from various stages during the approach, including rejected landings below decision height and after touchdown. TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 58 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 2. In summary — why and what 2.7.3 Amendments to Annex VI (Part-ARA) to the Aircrew Regulation ARA.FCL.300 Examination procedures: The term ‘multiple-choice’ is deleted. This allows also open questions to be posed by the European Central Question Bank (ECQB). Cologne, 29 June 2017 [signed by] Patrick Ky Executive Director TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 59 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 3. References 3. References 3.1. Affected regulations Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council (OJ L 311, 25.11.2011, p. 1) 3.2. Related decisions — Decision 2011/016/R of the Executive Director of the Agency of 15 December 2011 on Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council ‘Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-FCL) — Decision No 2012/006/Directorate R of the Executive Director of the Agency of 19th April 2012 on Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011 laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council ‘Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-ARA’ 3.3. Reference documents — ICAO Annex 1 (Personnel Licensing) — ICAO Annex 6 (Operation of Aircraft) — ICAO Doc 10011 ‘Manual on Aeroplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’ (First Edition — 2014) — ICAO Doc 9868 ‘Procedures for Air Navigation Services – Training (PANS-TRG)’ (Amendment No. 3, 23 April 2014) — ICAO Doc 9625 ‘Manual of Criteria for the Qualification of Flight Simulation Training Devices’ (Third edition — 2009) — FAA Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) 121.423 ‘Pilot: Extended Envelope Training’ — Loss of Control Avoidance and Recovery Training (LOCART) FAA Aviation Rulemaking committee (ARC) 208 final report — International Committee for Aviation Training in Extended Envelopes (ICATEE) final report — FAA AC 120-109 ‘Stall and Stick Pusher Training’ — FAA AC 120-111 ‘Upset Prevention and Recovery Training’ — EASA SIB 2013-02 ‘Stall and Stick Pusher Training’ — EASA SIB 2013-05 ‘Manual Flight Training and Operations’ TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 60 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 3. References — EASA SIB 2014-09 ‘Aeroplane Go-Around Training’ — Airplane Upset Recovery Training Aid (AURTA), Revision 2 and 3 TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 61 of 62 An agency of the European Union  European Aviation Safety Agency Opinion No 06/2017 4. Appendix 4. Appendix CRD 2015-13 (Separate document) TE.RPRO.00036-005 © European Aviation Safety Agency. All rights reserved. ISO 9001 certified. Proprietary document. Copies are not controlled. Confirm revision status through the EASA intranet/internet. Page 62 of 62 An agency of the European Union ANNEX I to draft Commission Regulation (EU) …/… of XXX amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards a revision of the Annexes I, II and III as well as the introduction of loss of control prevention and recovery training 1 of 262 1. Annexes I, II and III to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 are replaced as follows: ANNEX I [PART-FCL] SUBPART A GENERAL REQUIREMENTS FCL.001 Competent authority For the purpose of this Annex (Part-FCL), the competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member State to which a person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates. FCL.005 Scope This Annex (Part-FCL) establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates and the conditions of their validity and use. FCL.010 Definitions For the purposes of this Annex (Part-FCL), the following definitions, appearing in alphabetical order below, apply: ‘accessible’ means that a device can be used by: — the approved training organisation (ATO) under whose approval a training course for a class or type rating is being conducted; or — the examiner conducting the assessment of competence, skill test or proficiency check for the purpose of assessing, testing and checking. ‘aerobatic flight’ means an intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight or for instruction for licences, certificates or ratings other than the aerobatic rating. ‘aeroplane’ means an engine-driven, fixed-wing, heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings. ‘aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot’ means a type of aeroplane which is required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or in the air operator certificate (AOC). ‘aeroplane upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT)’ means training consisting of: — aeroplane upset prevention training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to prevent aeroplane upsets; and — aeroplane upset recovery training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to recover from aeroplane upsets. ‘aircraft’ means any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface. 2 of 262 ‘airmanship’ means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives. ‘airship’ means a power-driven, lighter-than-air aircraft, with the exception of hot-air airships, which, for the purposes of this Annex (Part-FCL), are included in the definition of balloon. ‘angular operation’ means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in terms of deflection of the needles on the course deviation indicator or equivalent display in the cockpit. ‘assessment of competence’ means the demonstration of skill, knowledge and attitude for the initial issue, revalidation or renewal of an instructor or examiner certificate. ‘available FSTD’ means any flight simulation training device (FSTD) that is vacant for use of the FSTD operator or of the customers irrespective of any time consideration. ‘balloon’ means a lighter-than-air aircraft which is not engine-driven and sustains flight through the use of either gas or an airborne heater. For the purposes of this Annex (Part-FCL), a hot-air airship, although engine- driven, is also considered a balloon. ‘basic instrument training device (BITD)’ means a ground-based training device which represents the student pilot’s station of a class of aeroplanes. It may use screen-based instrument panels and spring-loaded flight controls, providing a training platform for at least the procedural aspects of instrument flight. ‘category of aircraft’ means a categorisation of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, for example aeroplane, powered-lift, helicopter, airship, sailplane, free balloon. ‘class of aeroplane’ means a categorisation of single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating. ‘class of balloon’ means a categorisation of balloons taking into account the lifting means used to sustain flight. ‘commercial air transport’ means the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire. ‘competency’ means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitude required to perform a task to the prescribed standard. ‘competency element’ means an action which constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome. ‘competency unit’ means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements. ‘co-pilot’ means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, on an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating. ‘cross-country’ means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures. ‘cruise relief co-pilot’ means a pilot who relieves the co-pilot of their duties at the controls during the cruise phase of a flight in multi-pilot operations above FL 200. ‘dual instruction time’ means flight time or instrument ground time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorised instructor. 3 of 262 ‘error’ means an action or inaction by the flight crew which leads to deviations from organisational or flight intentions or expectations. ‘error management’ means the process of detecting and responding to errors with countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states. ‘full-flight simulator (FFS)’ means a full-size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view and a force cueing motion system. ‘flight time’: — for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift, it means the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight; — for helicopters, it means the total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped; — for airships, it means the total time from the moment an airship is released from the mast for the purpose of taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of the flight and is secured on the mast; — for sailplanes, it means the total time from the moment the sailplane commences the ground run in the process of taking off until the moment the sailplane finally comes to a rest at the end of flight; and — for balloons, it means the total time from the moment the basket leaves the ground for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to a rest at the end of the flight. ‘flight time under instrument flight rules (IFR)’ means all flight time during which the aircraft is being operated under IFR. ‘flight training device (FTD)’ means a full-size replica of a specific aircraft type’s instruments, equipment, panels and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of equipment and computer software programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight conditions to the extent of the systems installed in the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system, except in the case of helicopter FTD levels 2 and 3, where visual systems are required. ‘flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT)’ means a training device which represents the flight deck or cockpit environment, including the assemblage of equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent an aircraft type or class in-flight operations to the extent that the systems appear to function as in an aircraft. ‘flown solely by reference to instruments’ means that the pilots fly the aircraft without any external visual references, in simulated or actual instrument meteorological conditions (IMC). ‘group of balloons’ means a categorisation of balloons, taking into account the size or capacity of the envelope. ‘helicopter’ means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes. 4 of 262 ‘instrument flight time’ means the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely by reference to instruments. ‘instrument ground time’ means the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in FSTDs. ‘instrument time’ means instrument flight time or instrument ground time. ‘linear operation’ means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in units of length, for instance nautical miles, for cross-track lateral deviation. ‘LNAV’ means lateral navigation. ‘LPV’ means localiser performance with vertical guidance. ‘multi-pilot operation’: — for aeroplanes, it means an operation requiring at least two pilots using multi-crew cooperation in either multi-pilot or single-pilot aeroplanes; — for helicopters, it means an operation requiring at least two pilots using multi-crew cooperation on multi-pilot helicopters. ‘multi-crew cooperation (MCC)’ means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members led by the pilot-in-command. ‘multi-pilot aircraft’: — for aeroplanes, it means aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots; — for helicopters, airships and powered-lift aircraft, it means the type of aircraft which is required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or in the AOC or an equivalent document. ‘night’ means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority. ‘other training devices (OTDs)’ means training aids other than FSTDs which provide means for training where a complete flight deck environment is not necessary. ‘performance-based navigation (PBN)’ means area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an air traffic services (ATS) route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace. ‘performance criteria’ means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of performance has been achieved. ‘pilot-in-command (PIC)’ means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight. ‘pilot-in-command under supervision (PICUS)’ means a co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the PIC, the duties and functions of a PIC. ‘powered-lift aircraft’ means any aircraft deriving vertical lift and in-flight propulsion/lift from variable geometry rotors or engines/propulsive devices attached to or contained within the fuselage or wings. 5 of 262 ‘powered sailplane’ means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines having, with engines inoperative, the characteristics of a sailplane. ‘private pilot’ means a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft in operations for which remuneration is given, with the exclusion of instruction or examination activities, as established in this Annex (Part-FCL). ‘proficiency check’ means the demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings or privileges, and including such oral examination as may be required. ‘renewal’ (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken after a rating or certificate has lapsed for the purpose of renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements. ‘revalidation’ (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken within the period of validity of a rating or certificate which allows the holders to continue to exercise the privileges of a rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements. ‘RNP APCH’ means a PBN specification used for instrument approach operations. ‘RNP APCH operation down to LNAV minima’ means a 2D instrument approach operation for which the lateral guidance is based on global navigation satellite system (GNSS) positioning. ‘RNP APCH operation down to LNAV/VNAV minima’ means a 3D instrument approach operation for which the lateral guidance is based on GNSS positioning and the vertical guidance is provided either by the Baro VNAV function or by the GNSS positioning including satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS). ‘RNP APCH operation down to LPV minima’ means a 3D instrument approach operation for which both lateral and vertical guidance are based on GNSS positioning including SBAS. ‘RNP AR APCH’ means a navigation specification used for instrument approach operations requiring a specific approval. ‘route sector’ means a flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes, arrival, approach and landing phases. ‘sailplane’ means a heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces, the free flight of which does not depend on an engine. ‘single-pilot aircraft’ means an aircraft certificated for operation by one pilot. ‘skill test’ means the demonstration of skill for a licence or rating issue, including such oral examination as may be required. ‘solo flight time’ means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft. ‘student pilot-in-command (SPIC)’ means a student pilot acting as the PIC in a flight with an instructor where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft. ‘threat’ means events or errors which occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety. ‘threat management’ means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states. 6 of 262 ‘three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation’ means an instrument approach operation using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance. ‘touring motor glider (TMG)’ means a specific class of powered sailplane having an integrally mounted, non- retractable engine and a non-retractable propeller. It is capable of taking off and climbing under its own power according to its flight manual. ‘two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation’ means an instrument approach operation using lateral navigation guidance only. ‘type of aircraft’ means a categorisation of aircraft requiring a type rating as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 (OSD), and which includes all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics. ‘Type rating and licence endorsement list’ means a list published by the Agency based on the result of the OSD evaluation and containing classes and types of aircraft for the purpose of flight crew licensing. ‘VNAV’ means vertical navigation. FCL.015 Application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of licences, ratings and certificates (a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates shall be submitted to the competent authority in a form and manner established by this authority. The application shall be accompanied by evidence that applicants comply with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements, established in this Annex (Part-FCL) and in Annex IV (Part-MED). (b) Any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed ion the licence or certificate by the competent authority. (c) A person shall not hold at any time more than one licence per category of aircraft issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL). (d) An application for the issue of a licence for another category of aircraft or for the issue of further ratings or certificates, as well as an amendment, revalidation or renewal of those licences, ratings or certificates shall be submitted to the competent authority which initially issued the pilot licence, except when pilots haves requested a change of competent authority and a transfer of their licensing and medical records to that authority. FCL.020 Student pilots (a) Student pilots shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor. (b) Before their first solo flight, student pilots shall be at least: (1) in the case of aeroplanes, helicopters and airships: 16 years of age; and (2) in the case of sailplanes and balloons: 14 years of age. 7 of 262 FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings (a) Responsibilities of the applicants (1) Applicants shall take the entire set of theoretical knowledge examinations for a specific licence or rating under the responsibility of the same Member State’s competent authority. (2) Applicants shall only take the theoretical knowledge examination when recommended by the approved training organisation (ATO) responsible for their training, once they have completed the appropriate elements of the training course of theoretical knowledge instruction to a satisfactory standard. (3) The recommendation by an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If applicants have failed to attempt at least one theoretical knowledge examination paper within this period of validity, the need for further training shall be determined by the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants. (b) Pass standards (1) A pass in a theoretical knowledge examination paper will be awarded to applicants achieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to that paper. There is no penalty marking. (2) Unless otherwise determined in this Annex (Part-FCL), applicants have successfully completed the required theoretical knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot licence or rating when they have passed all the required theoretical knowledge examination papers within a period of 18 months counted from the end of the calendar month when the applicant first attempted an examination. (3) If applicants for the ATP theoretical knowledge examination, or for the issue of a commercial pilot licence (CPL), an instrument rating (IR) or an en route instrument rating (EIR) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts, or haves failed to pass all papers within either six sittings or the period mentioned in point (2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers. (4) If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL), a private pilot licence (PPL), a sailplane pilot licence (SPL) or a balloon pilot licence (BPL) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers. (5) Before retaking the theoretical knowledge examinations, applicants shall undertake further training at an ATO. The extent and scope of the training needed shall be determined by the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants. (c) Validity period (1) The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid: (i) for the issue of an LAPL, a PPL, an SPL or a BPL, for a period of 2 years; (ii) for the issue of a CPL, an IR or an EIR, for a period of 3 years; The periods in points (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day when the pilots successfully completes the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with point (b)(2). 8 of 262  (2) The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of: (i) an IR entered in a licence; or (ii) in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in a licence. FCL.030 Practical skill test (a) Before a skill test for the issue of a licence or rating is taken, applicants shall have passed the required theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants completing a course of integrated flying training. In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always have been completed before the skill tests are taken. (b) Except for the issue of an ATPL, applicants for a skill test shall be recommended for the test by the ATO or person responsible for the training, once the training is completed. The training records shall be made available to the examiner. FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge (a) Crediting of flight time (1) Unless otherwise specified in this Annex (Part-FCL), flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or certificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence, rating or certificate is sought. (2) Pilot-in-command (PIC) or under instruction (i) Applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence, rating or certificate. (ii) Graduates of an airline transport pilot (ATP) integrated training course are entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of student pilot-in-command (SPIC) instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the ATPL, CPL and a multi-engine type or class rating. (iii) Graduates of a CPL/IR integrated training course are entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of the SPIC instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the CPL and a multi-engine type or class rating. (3) Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS Unless otherwise determined in this Annex (Part-FCL), holders of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilots or PICUS, are entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence. (b) Crediting of theoretical knowledge (1) Applicants having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an ATPL shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirements for the LAPL, the PPL, the CPL and, except in the case of helicopters, the IR and the EIR in the same category of aircraft. 9 of 262  (2) Applicants having passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a CPL shall be credited with the theoretical knowledge requirement for an LAPL or a PPL in the same category of aircraft. (3) Holders of an IR or applicants having passed the instrument theoretical knowledge examination for a category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft. (4) Holders of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for a licence in the same or another category of aircraft in accordance with Appendix 1 to this Annex (Part-FCL). The credit shall also apply to applicants for a pilot licence who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of a licence in another category of aircraft, as long as it is within the validity period specified in FCL.025(c). (5) Notwithstanding point (b)(3), holders of an instrument rating (aeroplanes) IR(A) who have completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course or holders of an EIR shall only be credited in full towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft when also having passed the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with FCL.720.A.(b)(2)(i). FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings contained therein, if applicable, and of the medical certificate as appropriate to the privileges exercised. FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents (a) A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by pilots when exercising the privileges of the licence. (b) Pilots shall also carry a personal identification document containing their photo. (c) Pilots or student pilots shall without undue delay present their flight time record for inspection upon request by an authorised representative of a competent authority. (d) Student pilots shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required by FCL.020(a). FCL.050 Recording of flight time Pilots shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established by the competent authority. FCL.055 Language proficiency (a) Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio telephone shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a language proficiency endorsement on their licence in either English or the language used for radio communications involved in the flight. The endorsement shall indicate the language, the proficiency level, and the validity date, and it shall be 10 of 262  obtained in accordance with a procedure established by a competent authority. The minimum acceptable proficiency level is the operational level (Level 4). (b) Applicants for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex (Part-FCL), at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the use of phraseologies and plain language to a certified assessor or an approved language-testing body as applicable. To do so, applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (1) communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations; (2) communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity; (3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise and resolve misunderstandings in a general or work-related context; (4) handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected turn of events which occurs within the context of a routine work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and (5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community. (c) Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level, in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex (Part-FCL), the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-evaluated every: (1) 4 years, if the level demonstrated is operational; or (2) 6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended. (d) Specific requirements for holders of an IR or an EIR: Without prejudice to the points above, holders of an IR or an EIR shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language at the appropriate proficiency level. (e) The demonstration of language proficiency and of the use of English for IR or EIR holders shall be done through a method of assessment established by any competent authority. FCL.060 Recent experience (a) Balloons Pilots shall not operate a balloon in commercial air transport or carrying passengers unless they have completed in the preceding 180 days: (1) at least three flights as a pilots flying (PF) in a balloon, of which at least one shall be in a balloon of the relevant class and group; or (2) one flight in the relevant class and group of balloon under the supervision of an instructor qualified in accordance with Subpart J. (b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift, airships and sailplanes Pilots shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or carrying passengers: (1) as PIC or co-pilots unless they haves carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least three take-offs, approaches and landings in an aircraft of the same type or class or a full-flight simulator (FFS) representing that type or class. The three take-offs and landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilots; and 11 of 262  (2) as PIC at night unless they: (i) have carried out in the preceding 90 days at least one take-off, approach and landing at night as PF in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class; or (ii) holds an IR; (3) as cruise relief co-pilots unless they: (i) have complied with the requirements in point (b)(1); or (ii) have carried out in the preceding 90 days at least three sectors as a cruise relief pilot on the same type or class of aircraft; or (iii) have undergone recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not exceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’s recurrent training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO (Subpart FC)) to Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012. (4) When a pilots haves the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplanes with similar handling and operation characteristics, the three take-offs, approaches and landings required in point (1) may be performed as defined in the OSD. (5) When a pilots haves the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopters with similar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the OSD, the three take-offs, approaches and landings required in point (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that they have completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6 months. (c) Specific requirements for commercial air transport (1) In the case of commercial air transport, the 90-day period prescribed in points (b)(1) and (2) above may be extended up to a maximum of 120 days, as long as pilots undertakes line flying under the supervision of a type rating instructor or examiner. (2) When pilots do not comply with the requirement in point (1), they shall complete a training flight with an instructor qualified in accordance with Subpart J to instruct for that aircraft type. The training flight shall be performed in the aircraft or an FFS of the aircraft type to be used, and shall include at least the requirements described in points (b)(1) and (2) before the pilots can exercise their privileges. FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial air transport (a) Age 6064. Aeroplanes and helicopters. Holders of a pilot licence who have attained the age of 60 years shall not act as pilots of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except as members of a multi- pilot crew. (b) Age 65. Except in the case of holders of a BPL or an SPL, holders of a pilot licence who have attained the age of 65 years shall not act as pilots of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport. (c) Age 70. Holders of a BPL or an SPL who have attained the age of 70 years shall not act as pilots of a balloon or a sailplane engaged in commercial air transport. 12 of 262 FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates (a) Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) may be limited, suspended or revoked by the competent authority when pilots do not comply with the requirements of this Annex (Part-FCL), Annex IV (Part-MED) or the applicable operational requirements, in accordance with the conditions and procedures laid down in Annex VI (Part-ARA). (b) When pilots have their licence suspended or revoked, they shall immediately return the licence or certificate to the competent authority. 13 of 262  SUBPART B LIGHT AIRCRAFT PILOT LICENCE — LAPL SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.100 LAPL — minimum age Applicants for an LAPL shall be: (a) in the case of aeroplanes and helicopters, at least 17 years of age; and (b) in the case of sailplanes and balloons, at least 16 years of age. FCL.105 LAPL — privileges and conditions (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of an LAPL are to act without remuneration as PIC in non-commercial operations in the appropriate aircraft category. (b) Conditions Applicants for an LAPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the relevant aircraft category and, when applicable, for the class or type of aircraft used in the skill test. FCL.110 LAPL — crediting for the same aircraft category (a) Applicants for an LAPL who have held another licence in the same category of aircraft shall be fully credited towards the requirements of the LAPL in that category of aircraft. (b) Without prejudice to point (a), if the licence has lapsed, applicants shall have to pass a skill test in accordance with FCL.125 for the issue of an LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category. FCL.115 LAPL — training course Applicants for an LAPL shall complete a training course within an ATO. The course shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges granted. For the training for the single-engine piston aeroplanes — sea class rating (SEP(sea)) privilege, the elements of Appendix 9, point 7. shall be considered. FCL.120 LAPL — theoretical knowledge examination Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations on the following: (a) common subjects: (1) air law and air traffic control (ATC) procedures; (2) human performance; 14 of 262  (3) meteorology; and (4) communications; and (b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories: (1) principles of flight; (2) operational procedures; (3) flight performance and planning; (4) aircraft general knowledge; and (5) navigation. FCL.125 LAPL — skill test (a) Applicants for an LAPL shall demonstrate through the pass of a skill test the ability to perform, as PIC in the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competency appropriate to the privileges granted. (b) Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction in the same class or type of aircraft to be used for the skill test. The privileges will be restricted to the class or type used for the skill test until further extensions are endorsed on the licence, in accordance with this Subpart. (c) Pass marks (1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases of flight as appropriate to the category of aircraft flown. (2) Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require applicants to repeat the entire test. (3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with point (2), failure in any section, including those that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause applicants to fail the entire test. (4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test within two attempts will require further practical training. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the LAPL for aeroplanes — LAPL(A) FCL.105.A LAPL(A) — privileges and conditions (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of an LAPL for aeroplanes (LAPL(A) are to act as PIC in single-engine piston aeroplanes (land) (SEP(land)), SEP(sea) or touring motor gliders (TMGs) with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2 000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board the aircraft. (b) Conditions 15 of 262  (1) Holders of an LAPL(A) shall only carry passengers once they have completed 10 hours of flight time as PIC in aeroplanes or TMGs after the issue of the licence. (2) Holders of an ATPL(A), an MPL(A), a CPL(A) or a PPL(A) who also hold an LAPL(A), are exempted from the requirements in point (b)(1). FCL.110.A LAPL(A) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for an LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 30 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least: (1) 15 hours of dual flight instruction in the class in which the skill test will be taken; and (2) 6 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 3 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which one full-stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (b) Specific experience requirements for applicants holding an LAPL for sailplanes (LAPL(S)) with TMG extension Applicants for an LAPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) with TMG extension shall have: (1) completed at least 21 hours of flight time in TMGs after the endorsement of the TMG extension; and (2) complied with the requirements in FCL.135.A(a) on aeroplanes. (c) Crediting Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in point (a). The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where pilots complete the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall not in any case: (1) exceed the total flight time as PIC; (2) exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (a)(1); and (3) include the hours required in point (a)(2). FCL.135.A LAPL(A) — extension of privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane (a) The privileges of an LAPL(A) shall be limited to the class and variant of aeroplanes or TMGs in which the skill test was taken. The limitation to a class may be removed when pilots have completed in another class the requirements below: (1) 3 hours of flight instruction, including: (i) 10 dual take-offs and landings; and (ii) 10 supervised solo take-offs and landings. 16 of 262  (2) Pass of a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in the new class. During this skill test, applicants shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects: (i) operational procedures; (ii) flight performance and planning; and (iii) aircraft general knowledge. (b) In order to remove the limitation to a variant within a class, pilots shall undertake differences training or do a familiarisation. The differences training shall be entered in the pilots’ logbook and signed by the instructor. FCL.140.A LAPL(A) — recency requirements (a) Holders of an LAPL(A) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have, in the last 2 years, as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs either: (1) completed at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC or flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, including 12 take-offs and landings, and refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor;. or (2) passed an LAPL(A) proficiency check with an examiner. The proficiency check programme shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(A). (b) When holders of an LAPL(A) hold both a SEP(land) and a SEP(sea) privilege, they may complete the requirements in point (a)(1) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve the fulfilment of these requirements for both privileges. At least 1 hour of the required PIC time and 6 of the required 12 take- offs and landings shall be completed in each class. SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the LAPL for helicopters — LAPL(H) FCL.105.H LAPL(H) — privileges The privileges of holders of an LAPL for helicopters are to act as PIC in single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of 2 000 kg or less, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board the aircraft. FCL.110.H LAPL(H) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for an LAPL(H) shall have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters. At least 35 out of the 40 hours of flight instruction shall be flown on the type of helicopter that is to be used for the skill test. The flight instruction shall include at least: (1) 20 hours of dual flight instruction; and 17 of 262  (2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which one full-stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (b) Crediting Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in point (a). The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where pilots complete the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall not in any case: (1) exceed the total flight time as PIC; (2) exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (a); and (3) include the requirements in point (a)(2). FCL.135.H LAPL(H) — extension of privileges to another type or variant of helicopter (a) The privileges of an LAPL(H) shall be limited to the specific type and variant of helicopter in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when pilots have completed in the new type: (1) 5 hours of flight instruction, including: (i) 15 dual take-offs, approaches and landings; and (ii) 15 supervised solo take-offs, approaches and landings; and (2) pass of a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill. During this skill test, applicants shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the new type in the following subjects: (i) operational procedures; (ii) flight performance and planning; and (iii) aircraft general knowledge. (b) Before holders of an LAPL(H) can exercise the privileges of the licence in another variant of helicopter than the one used for the skill test, they shall undertake differences training or do a familiarisation, as defined in the OSD. The differences training shall be entered in the pilots’ logbook and signed by the instructor. FCL.140.H LAPL(H) — recency requirements Holders of an LAPL(H) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on a specific type when they have: (a) completed on helicopters of that type in the last 12 months at least 6 hours of flight time as PIC, or flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, including six take-offs, approaches and landings, and refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor; or (2) passed a proficiency check with an examiner on the specific type before they resume the exercise of the privileges of their licence. The proficiency check shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(H). 18 of 262 SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the LAPL for sailplanes — LAPL(S) FCL.105.S LAPL(S) — privileges and conditions (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of an LAPL(S) are to act as PIC in sailplanes and powered sailplanes. In order to exercise the privileges in a TMG, holders shall comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S. (b) Conditions (1) Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only carry passengers once they have completed 10 hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence. (2) Holders of an SPL who comply with the requirements in FCL.205.S(b)(1) and to whom an LAPL(S) was issued are exempted from the requirements in point (b)(1). FCL.110.S LAPL(S) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements (1) Applicants for an LAPL(S) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including at least: (i) 10 hours of dual flight instruction; (ii) 2 hours of supervised solo flight time; (iii) 45 launches and landings; and (iv) one solo cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM) or one dual cross-country flight of at least 100 km (55 NM). (2) Of the 15 hours required in point (1), a maximum of 7 hours may be completed in a TMG. (b) Crediting Applicants with prior experience as PIC may be credited towards the requirements in point (a). The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where pilots complete the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall not in any case: (1) exceed the total flight time as PIC; (2) exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (1); and (3) include the requirements in points (a)(1)(ii) to (a)(1)(iv). FCL.130.S LAPL(S) — launch methods (a) The privileges of the LAPL(S) shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be removed when pilots have completed: (1) in the case of winch launch and car launch, a minimum of 10 launches in dual flight instruction, and 5 solo launches under supervision; 19 of 262  (2) in the case of aero-tow or self-launch, a minimum of five launches in dual flight instruction, and five solo launches under supervision. In the case of self-launch, dual flight instruction may be done in a TMG; and (3) in the case of bungee launch, a minimum of three launches performed in dual flight instruction or solo under supervision. (b) The completion of the additional training launches shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor. (c) In order to maintain their privileges in each launch method, pilots shall complete a minimum of five launches during the last 2 years, except for bungee launch, in which case pilots shall have completed only two launches. (d) When pilots do not comply with the requirement in point (c), they shall perform the additional number of launches flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges. FCL.135.S LAPL(S) — extension of privileges to TMG The privileges of an LAPL(S) shall be extended to a TMG when pilots have completed in an ATO, at least: (a) 6 hours of flight instruction in a TMG, including: (1) 4 hours of dual flight instruction; and (2) one solo cross-country flight of at least 150 km (80 NM), during which one full-stop landing at an aerodrome different from the aerodrome of departure shall be performed; and (b) pass of a skill test to demonstrate an adequate level of practical skill in a TMG. During this skill test, applicants shall also demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the TMG in the following subjects: (1) principles of flight; (2) operational procedures; (3) flight performance and planning; (4) aircraft general knowledge; and (5) navigation. FCL.140.S LAPL(S) — recency requirements (a) Sailplanes and powered sailplanes Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence on sailplanes or powered sailplanes when they have completed on sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs, in the last 2 years, at least the following requirements: (1) 5 hours of flight time as PIC, including 15 launches and two training flights with an instructor; or (2) have passed a proficiency check with an examiner in a sailplane or powered sailplane. The proficiency check shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(S). 20 of 262 (b) TMGs (1) Holders of an LAPL(S) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence in a TMG when they have completed in TMGs in the last 2 years at least 12 hours of flight time as PIC, or flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor including 12 take-offs and landings, and refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with an instructor or passed a proficiency check with an examiner in a TMG. The proficiency check shall be based on the skill test for the LAPL(S). (2) When holders of an LAPL(S) also have the privileges to fly aeroplanes, the requirements in point (1) may be completed on aeroplanes. (c) Holders of an LAPL(S) who do not comply with the requirements in points (a) or (b) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges: (1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner on a sailplane or a TMG, as appropriate; or (2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in points (a) or (b). SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the LAPL for balloons — LAPL(B) FCL.105.B LAPL(B) — privileges The privileges of holders of an LAPL for balloons are to act as PIC in hot-air balloons or hot-air airships with a maximum of 3 400 m3 envelope capacity or gas balloons with a maximum of 1 260 m3 envelope capacity, carrying a maximum of 3 passengers, such that there are never more than 4 persons on board the balloon. FCL.110.B LAPL(B) —experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for an LAPL(B) shall have completed on balloons of the same class at least 16 hours of flight instruction, including at least: (1) 12 hours of dual flight instruction; (2) 10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and (3) one supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes. (b) Crediting Applicants with prior experience as PIC in balloons may be credited towards the requirements in point (a). The amount of credit shall be decided by the ATO where pilots complete the training course, on the basis of a pre-entry flight test, but shall not in any case: (1) exceed the total flight time as PIC in balloons; (2) exceed 50 % of the hours required in point (a); and (3) include the requirements in points (a)(2) and (a)(3). 21 of 262 FCL.130.B LAPL(B) — extension of privileges to tethered flights (a) The privileges of an LAPL(B) shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation may be removed when pilots have completed at least three tethered dual training flights. (b) The completion of the additional training shall be entered in the logbook and signed by the instructor. (c) In order to maintain this privilege, pilots shall complete a minimum of two tethered flights during the last 2 years. (d) When pilots do not comply with the requirement in point (c), they shall perform the additional number of tethered flights flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor in order to renew the privileges. FCL.135.B LAPL(B) — extension of privileges to another balloon class The privileges of an LAPL(B) shall be limited to the class of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This limitation may be removed when pilots have completed in the other class, at an ATO, at least: (a) five dual training flights; or (b) in the case of holders of an LAPL(B) for hot-air balloons wishing to extend their privileges to hot-air airships, 5 hours of dual flight instruction time; and (c) a skill test, during which they shall demonstrate to the examiner an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the other class in the following subjects: (1) principles of flight; (2) operational procedures; (3) flight performance and planning; and (4) aircraft general knowledge. FCL.140.B LAPL(B) — recency requirements (a) Holders of an LAPL(B) shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed, in one class of balloons in the last 2 years, at least: (1) 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and (2) one training flight with an instructor. In addition, if pilots are qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order to exercise their privileges in the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flight time in that class within the last 2 years, including three take-offs and landings. (b) Holders of an LAPL(B) who do not comply with the requirements in point (a), shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges: (1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner in the appropriate class; or (2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in point (a). 22 of 262  SUBPART C PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (PPL), SAILPLANE PILOT LICENCE (SPL) AND BALLOON PILOT LICENCE (BPL) SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.200 PPL, SPL AND BPL — minimum age (a) Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall be at least 17 years of age. (b) Applicants for the issue of a BPL or an SPL shall be at least 16 years of age. FCL.205 PPL, SPL AND BPL — conditions Applicants for the issue of a PPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating for the aircraft used in the skill test, as established in Subpart H. FCL.210 PPL, SPL AND BPL — training course Applicants for a BPL, an SPL or a PPL shall complete a training course at an ATO. The course shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction appropriate to the privileges granted. FCL.215 PPL, SPL AND BPL — theoretical knowledge examination Applicants for a BPL, an SPL or a PPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, through examinations in the following subjects: (a) common subjects: (1) air law; (2) human performance; (3) meteorology; and (4) communications; and (5) navigation; and (b) specific subjects concerning the different aircraft categories: (1) principles of flight; (2) operational procedures; (3) flight performance and planning; and (4) aircraft general knowledge. FCL.235 PPL, SPL AND BPL — skill test (a) Applicants for a BPL, an SPL or a PPL shall demonstrate through the pass of a skill test the ability to perform, as PIC in the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with competency appropriate to the privileges granted. 23 of 262 (b) Applicants for the skill test shall have received flight instruction in the same class or type of aircraft, or in one or more balloons within a group of balloons, to be used for the skill test. (c) Pass marks (1) The skill test shall be divided into different sections, representing all the different phases of flight as appropriate to the category of aircraft flown. (2) Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require applicants to repeat the entire test. (3) When the test needs to be repeated in accordance with point (2), failure in any section, including those that have been passed on a previous attempt, will cause applicants to fail the entire test. (4) Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in two attempts will require further training. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the PPL for aeroplanes — PPL(A) FCL.205.A PPL(A) — privileges (a) The privileges of holders of a PPL(A) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs engaged in non-commercial operations and exercise all privileges of holders of an LAPL(A). (b) Notwithstanding point (a), holders of a PPL(A) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for: (1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(A) or PPL(A); (2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences; and (3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to these licences. FCL.210.A PPL(A) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for a PPL(A) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs, 5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least: (1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and (2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight of at least 270 km (150 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (b) Specific experience requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(A) Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an LAPL(A) shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight time on aeroplanes after the issue of the LAPL(A), of which at least 10 shall be flight instruction completed in a training course at an ATO. This training course shall include at least 4 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 2 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight of 24 of 262  at least 270 km (150 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (c) Specific experience requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with a TMG extension Applicants for a PPL(A) holding an LAPL(S) or an SPL with a TMG extension shall have completed: (1) at least 24 hours of flight time in TMG after the endorsement of the TMG extension; and (2) 15 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes in a training course at an ATO, including at least the requirements in point (a)(2). (d) Crediting Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC in such aircraft up to a maximum of 10 hours. The amount of credit given shall not in any case include the requirements in point (a)(2). SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the PPL for helicopters — PPL(H) FCL.205.H PPL(H) — privileges (a) The privileges of holders of a PPL(H) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilots of helicopters engaged in non-commercial operations and exercise all privileges of holders of an LAPL(H). (b) Notwithstanding point (a), holders of a PPL(H) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for: (1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(H) or the PPL(H); (2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences; and (3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to these licences. FCL.210.H PPL(H) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for a PPL(H) shall have completed at least 45 hours of flight instruction in helicopters, 5 of which may have been completed in a flight and navigation procedures trainer (FNPT) or an FFS, including at least: (1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction; and (2) 10 hours of supervised solo flight time, including at least 5 hours of solo cross-country flight time with at least one cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. 35 of the 45 hours of flight instruction have to be completed on the same type of helicopter as the one used for the skill test. 25 of 262 (b) Specific experience requirements for applicants holding an LAPL(H) Applicants for a PPL(H) holding an LAPL(H) shall complete a training course at an ATO. This training course shall include at least 5 hours of dual flight instruction time and at least one supervised solo cross- country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (c) Crediting Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC in such aircraft up to a maximum of 6 hours. The amount of credit given shall not in any case include the requirements in point (a)(2). SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the PPL for airships — PPL(As) FCL.205.As PPL(As) — privileges (a) The privileges of holders of a PPL(As) are to act without remuneration as PIC or co-pilot on airships engaged in non-commercial operations. (b) Notwithstanding point (a), holders of a PPL(As) with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for: (1) the provision of flight instruction for the PPL(As); (2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for this licence; and (3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to these licences. FCL.210.As PPL(As) — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for a PPL(As) shall have completed at least 35 hours of flight instruction in airships, 5 of which may have been completed in an FSTD, including at least: (1) 25 hours of dual flight instruction, including: (i) 3 hours of cross-country flight training, including one cross-country flight of at least 65 km (35 NM); and (ii) 3 hours of instrument instruction; (2) eight take-offs and landings at an aerodrome, including masting and unmasting procedures; and (3) 8 hours of supervised solo flight time. (b) Crediting Applicants holding a BPL and qualified to fly hot-air airships shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC in such airships up to a maximum of 5 hours. 26 of 262 SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the sailplane pilot licence — SPL FCL.205.S SPL — privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of holders of an SPL are to act as PIC in sailplanes and powered sailplanes and exercise all privileges of holders of an LAPL(S). In order to exercise the privileges in a TMG, holders shall have to comply with the requirements in FCL.135.S. (b) Holders of an SPL shall: (1) carry passengers only when having completed, after the issue of the licence, at least 10 hours of flight time or 30 launches as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes unless they are holders of an LAPL(S) with the privilege to carry passengers; (2) be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have: (i) attained the age of 18 years; (ii) completed, after the issue of the licence, 75 hours of flight time or 200 launches as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes; and (iii) passed a proficiency check with an examiner. (c) Notwithstanding (b)(2), holders of an SPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for: (1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(S) or the SPL; (2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences; and (3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to these licences. FCL.210.S SPL — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for an SPL shall have completed at least 15 hours of flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including at least the requirements specified in FCL.110.S. (b) Crediting (1) Applicants for an SPL holding an LAPL(S) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of an SPL. (2) Applicants for an SPL who held an LAPL(S) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction. (3) Applicants holding a pilot licence for another category of aircraft, with the exception of balloons, shall be credited with 10 % of their total flight time as PIC in such aircraft up to a maximum of 7 hours. The amount of credit given shall not in any case include the requirements in points (a)(1)(ii) to (a)(1)(iv) of FCL.110.S. 27 of 262 FCL.220.S SPL — launch methods The privileges of the SPL shall be limited to the launch method included in the skill test. This limitation may be removed and the new privileges exercised when pilots comply with the requirements in FCL.130.S. FCL.230.S SPL — recency requirements Holders of an SPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when complying with the recency requirements in FCL.140.S. SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the balloon pilot licence — BPL FCL.205.B BPL — privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of holders of a BPL are to act as PIC in balloons and exercise all privileges of holders of an LAPL(B). (b) Holders of a BPL shall be restricted to act without remuneration in non-commercial operations until they have: (1) attained the age of 18 years; (2) completed 50 hours of flight time and 50 take-offs and landings as PIC in balloons; and (3) passed a proficiency check with an examiner on a balloon in the specific class. (c) Notwithstanding point (b), holders of a BPL with instructor or examiner privileges may receive remuneration for: (1) the provision of flight instruction for the LAPL(B) or the BPL; (2) the conduct of skill tests and proficiency checks for these licences; and (3) the training, testing and checking for the ratings or certificates attached to these licences. FCL.210.B BPL — experience requirements and crediting (a) Experience requirements Applicants for a BPL shall have completed on balloons in the same class and group at least 16 hours of flight instruction, including at least: (1) 12 hours of dual flight instruction; (2) 10 inflations and 20 take-offs and landings; and (3) one supervised solo flight with a minimum flight time of at least 30 minutes. (b) Crediting (1) Applicants for a BPL holding an LAPL(B) shall be fully credited towards the requirements for the issue of a BPL. 28 of 262  (2) Applicants for a BPL who held an LAPL(B) within the period of 2 years before the application shall be fully credited towards the requirements of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction. FCL.220.B BPL — extension of privileges to tethered flights The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to non-tethered flights. This limitation shall be removed upon application when pilots comply with the requirements in FCL.130.B. FCL.225.B BPL — extension of privileges to another balloon class or group The privileges of the BPL shall be limited to the class and group of balloons in which the skill test was taken. This limitation shall be removed upon application when pilots have: (a) in the case of an extension to another class within the same group, complied with the requirements in FCL.135.B; and (b) in the case of an extension to another group within the same class of balloons, completed at least: (1) 2 dual training flights on a balloon of the relevant group; and (2) the following hours of flight time as PIC in balloons: (i) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 3 401 m3 and 6 000 m3, at least 100 hours; (ii) for balloons with an envelope capacity between 6 001 m3 and 10 500 m3, at least 200 hours; (iii) for balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 10 500 m3, at least 300 hours; and (iv) for gas balloons with an envelope capacity of more than 1 260 m3, at least 50 hours. FCL.230.B BPL — recency requirements (a) Holders of a BPL shall only exercise the privileges of their licence when they have completed in one class of balloons in the last 2 years at least: (1) 6 hours of flight time as PIC, including 10 take-offs and landings; and (2) one training flight with an instructor in a balloon within the appropriate class; and (3) in addition, in the case of pilots qualified to fly more than one class of balloons, in order to exercise their privileges in the other class, they shall have completed at least 3 hours of flight time in that class within the last 2 years, including three take-offs and landings. (b) Holders of a BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same a group of the balloon in which the training flight is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size; (c) Holders of a BPL who do not comply with the requirements in point (a) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges: (1) pass a proficiency check with an examiner in a balloon within the appropriate class; or (2) perform the additional flight time or take-offs and landings, flying dual or solo under the supervision of an instructor, in order to fulfil the requirements in point (a). 29 of 262 (d) In the case of point (c)(1), holders of the BPL shall only operate a balloon of the same group in which the proficiency check is completed or a balloon of a group with a smaller envelope size. SUBPART D COMMERCIAL PILOT LICENCE — CPL SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.300 CPL — minimum age Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall be at least 18 years of age. FCL.305 CPL — privileges and conditions (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of a CPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to: (1) exercise all the privileges of holders of an LAPL and a PPL; (2) act as PIC or co-pilots of any aircraft engaged in operations other than commercial air transport; (3) act as PIC in commercial air transport of any single-pilot aircraft subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060 and in this Subpart; and (4) act as co-pilots in commercial air transport subject to the restrictions specified in FCL.060. (b) Conditions Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the class or type rating of the aircraft used in the skill test. FCL.310 CPL — theoretical knowledge examinations Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the following subjects: (a) air law; (b) aircraft general knowledge — airframe/systems/power plant; (c) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation; (d) mass and balance; (e) performance; (f) flight planning and monitoring; (g) human performance; (h) meteorology; 30 of 262 (i) general navigation; (j) radio navigation; (k) operational procedures; (l) principles of flight; and (m) communications. FCL.315 CPL — training course Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall have completed theoretical knowledge instruction and flight instruction at an ATO, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Annex (Part-FCL). FCL.320 CPL — skill test Applicants for the issue of a CPL shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 4 to this Annex (Part-FCL) to demonstrate the ability to perform, as PIC in the appropriate aircraft category, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category — CPL(A) FCL.325.A CPL(A) — specific conditions for MPL holders Before exercising the privileges of a CPL(A), holders of an MPL shall have completed in aeroplanes: (a) 70 hours of flight time: (1) as PIC; or (2) made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and the additional flight time as PICUS. Of these 70 hours, 20 shall be of VFR cross-country flight time as PIC, or cross-country flight time made up of at least 10 hours as PIC and 10 hours as PICUS. This shall include one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be flown as PIC; (b) the elements of the CPL(A) modular course as specified in points 10(a) and 11 of Appendix 3, E to this Annex (Part-FCL); and (c) the CPL(A) skill test, in accordance with FCL.320. 31 of 262  SUBPART E MULTI-CREW PILOT LICENCE — MPL FCL.400.A MPL — minimum age Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall be at least 18 years of age. FCL.405.A MPL — privileges (a) The privileges of holders of an MPL are to act as co-pilots of an aeroplane required to be operated with a co-pilot. (b) Holders of an MPL may obtain the extra privileges of: (1) holders of a PPL(A), provided that the requirements for the PPL(A) specified in Subpart C are met; and (2) a CPL(A), provided that the requirements specified in FCL.325.A are met. (c) Holders of an MPL shall have the privileges of their IR(A) limited to aeroplanes required to be operated with a co-pilot. The privileges of the IR(A) may be extended to single-pilot operations in aeroplanes, provided that the licence holders have completed the training necessary to act as PIC in single-pilot operations exercised solely by reference to instruments and passed the skill test of the IR(A) as a single- pilot. FCL.410.A MPL — training course and theoretical knowledge examinations (a) Course Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall have completed a training course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO in accordance with Appendix 5 to this Annex (Part-FCL). (b) Examination Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the holders of an ATPL(A), in accordance with FCL.515, and to a multi-pilot type rating. FCL.415.A MPL — practical skill (a) Applicants for the issue of an MPL shall have demonstrated through continuous assessment the skills required for fulfilling all the competency units specified in Appendix 5 to this Annex (Part-FCL), as PF and pilot monitoring (PM), in a multi-engine turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under VFR and IFR. (b) On completion of the training course, applicants shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL), to demonstrate the ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the type of aeroplane used on the advanced phase of the MPL integrated training course or in an FFS representing the same type. 32 of 262  SUBPART F AIRLINE TRANSPORT PILOT LICENCE — ATPL SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.500 ATPL — minimum age Applicants for an ATPL shall be at least 21 years of age. FCL.505 ATPL — privileges and conditions (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of an ATPL are, within the appropriate aircraft category, to: (1) exercise all the privileges of holders of an LAPL, a PPL and a CPL; and (2) act as PIC of aircraft engaged in commercial air transport. (b) Conditions Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall have fulfilled the requirements for the type rating of the aircraft used in the skill test. FCL.515 ATPL — training course and theoretical knowledge examinations (a) Course Applicants for an ATPL shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be either an integrated training course or a modular course, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Annex (Part- FCL). (b) Examination Applicants for the issue of an ATPL shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the following subjects: (1) air law; (2) aircraft general knowledge — airframe/systems/power plant; (3) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation; (4) mass and balance; (5) performance; (6) flight planning and monitoring; (7) human performance; (8) meteorology; (9) general navigation; 33 of 262  (10) radio navigation; (11) operational procedures; (12) principles of flight; and (13) communications. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category — ATPL(A) FCL.505.A ATPL(A) — restriction of privileges for pilots previously holding an MPL When holders of an ATPL(A) have previously held only an MPL, the privileges of the licence shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations, unless holders have complied with FCL.405.A(b)(2) and (c) for single-pilot operations. FCL.510.A ATPL(A) — prerequisites, experience and crediting (a) Prerequisites Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall hold: (1) an MPL; or (2) a CPL(A) and a multi-engine IR for aeroplanes. In this case, applicants shall also have received instruction in multi-crew cooperation (MCC). (b) Experience Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall have completed, before the ATPL(A) skill test is taken, a minimum of 1 500 hours of flight time in aeroplanes, including at least: (1) 500 hours in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes; (2) one of the following: (i) 500 hours as PICUS; or (ii) 250 hours as PIC; or (iii) 250 hours, including at least 70 hours as PIC, and the remaining as PICUS; (3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PICUS; (4) 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 hours may be instrument ground time; and (5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or co-pilots. Of the 1 500 hours of flight time, up to 100 hours of flight time may have been completed in an FFS or an FNPT. Of these 100 hours, only a maximum of 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT. (c) Crediting (1) Holders of a pilot licence for other categories of aircraft shall be credited with flight time up to a maximum of: (i) 30 hours flown as PIC for TMG or sailplanes; 34 of 262  (ii) 50 % of all the flight time requirements in point (b) for helicopters. (2) Holders of a flight engineer licence issued in accordance with applicable national rules shall be credited with 50 % of the flight engineer time up to a maximum credit of 250 hours. These 250 hours may be credited against the 1 500-hour requirement in point (b) and the 500-hour requirement in point (b)(1), provided that the total credit given against any of these points does not exceed 250 hours. FCL.520.A ATPL(A) — skill test Applicants for an ATPL(A) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) to demonstrate the ability to perform, as PIC of a multi-pilot aeroplane under IFR, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the aeroplane or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same type. SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category — ATPL(H) FCL.510.H ATPL(H) — prerequisites, experience and crediting (a) Prerequisites Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall hold a CPL(H) and a multi-pilot helicopter type rating and have received instruction in MCC. (b) Experience Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall have completed, before the ATPL(A) skill test is taken, as pilots of helicopters a minimum of 1 000 hours of flight time including at least: (1) 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters; (2) one of the following: (i) 250 hours as PIC; or (ii) 100 hours as PIC and 150 hours as PICUS; or (iii) 250 hours as PICUS in multi-pilot helicopters. In this case, the ATPL(H) privileges shall be limited to multi-pilot operations only, until 100 hours as PIC have been completed; (3) 200 hours of cross-country flight time, of which at least 100 hours shall be as PIC or as PICUS; (4) 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may be instrument ground time; and (5) 100 hours of night flight as PIC or as co-pilots. Of the 1 000 hours, a maximum of 100 hours may have been completed in an FFS or an FNPT, of which not more than 25 hours may be completed in an FNPT. (c) Crediting Flight time in aeroplanes shall be credited up to 50 % against the flight time requirements in point (b). 35 of 262 FCL.520.H ATPL(H) — skill test Applicants for an ATPL(H) shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) to demonstrate the ability to perform, as PIC of a multi-pilot helicopter, the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. The skill test shall be taken in the helicopter or an adequately qualified FFS representing the same type. 36 of 262  SUBPART G INSTRUMENT RATING — IR SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.600 IR — general Except as provided in FCL.825, operations under IFR on an aeroplane, helicopter, airship or powered-lift aircraft shall only be conducted by holders of: (a) a PPL, a CPL, an MPL and an ATPL; and (b) except when undergoing skill tests, proficiency checks or when receiving dual instruction, an IR with privileges appropriate to the applicable airspace requirements and to the category of aircraft. FCL.605 IR — privileges (a) Privileges (1) The privileges of holders of an IR are to fly aircraft under IFR, including PBN operations, with a minimum decision height of no less than 200 ft (60 m). (2) In the case of a multi-engine IR, these privileges may be extended to decision heights lower than 200 ft (60 m) when applicants have undergone specific training at an ATO and have passed Section 6 of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) in multi-pilot aircraft. (b) Conditions (1) Holders of an IR shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the conditions established in Appendix 8 to this Annex (Part-FCL). (2) Helicopters only To exercise privileges as PIC under IFR in multi-pilot helicopters, holders of an IR(H) shall have at least 70 hours of instrument time, of which up to 30 hours may be instrument ground time. FCL.610 IR — prerequisites Applicants for an IR shall: (a) hold: (1) at least a PPL in the appropriate aircraft category, and if the IR privileges will be used at night: (i) the privileges to fly at night in accordance with FCL.810; or (ii) an ATPL in another category of aircraft; or (2) a CPL, in the appropriate aircraft category; and 37 of 262 (b) have completed at least 50 hours of cross-country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, TMGs, helicopters or airships, of which at least 10 or, in the case of airships, 20 hours shall be in the relevant aircraft category. (c) Applicants for an IR(H) who have completed an ATP(H)/IR, an ATP(H), a CPL(H)/IR or a CPL(H) integrated training course shall be exempted from the requirement in point (b). FCL.615 IR — theoretical knowledge and flight instruction (a) Course Applicants for an IR shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO. The course shall be: (1) an integrated training course which includes training for the IR, in accordance with Appendix 3 to this Annex (Part-FCL); or (2) a modular course in accordance with Appendix 6 to this Annex (Part-FCL). (b) Examination Applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted in the following subjects: (1) air law; (2) aircraft general knowledge — instrumentation; (3) flight planning and monitoring; (4) human performance; (5) meteorology; (6) radio navigation; and (7) communications. FCL.620 IR — skill test (a) Applicants for an IR shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 7 to this Annex (Part-FCL) to demonstrate the ability to perform the relevant procedures and manoeuvres with the competency appropriate to the privileges granted. (b) For a multi-engine IR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aircraft. For a single-engine IR, the test shall be taken in a single-engine aircraft. A multi-engine centreline thrust aeroplane shall be considered a single-engine aeroplane for the purposes of this point. FCL.625 IR — validity, revalidation and renewal (a) Validity An IR shall be valid for 1 year. (b) Revalidation 38 of 262  (1) An IR shall be revalidated within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating by complying with the revalidation criteria for the relevant aircraft category. (2) If pilots choose to fulfil the revalidation requirements earlier than prescribed above, the new validity period shall commence from the date of the proficiency check. (23) Applicants who fail to pass the relevant section of an IR proficiency check before the expiry date of the IR shall not exercise the IR privileges until they have passed the proficiency check. (c) Renewal If an IR has expired, in order to renew their privileges, applicants shall: (1) go through refresher training if deemed necessary by the ATO, at an ATO to reach the level of proficiency needed to pass the instrument element of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL); (2) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL), in the relevant aircraft category; and (3) hold the relevant class or type rating unless otherwise specified in this Annex (Part-FCL). (d) If the IR has not been revalidated or renewed within the preceding 7 years, holders will be required to pass again the IR theoretical knowledge examination and skill test. (e) Notwithstanding the requirements in points (c)(1) and (2) as well as (d), holders of a valid IR on a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention shall for the renewal of their IR contained in their licence issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL). (f) The proficiency checks mentioned in points (c)(3) and (e) may be combined with a proficiency check performed for the renewal of the relevant class or type rating. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category FCL.625.A IR(A) — revalidation (a) Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(A) shall hold the relevant class or type rating and: (1) when combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL); (2) when not combined with the revalidation of a class or type rating, shall: (i) for single-pilot aeroplanes, complete Section 3b and those parts of Section 1 relevant to the intended flight, of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL); (ii) for multi-engine aeroplanes, pass Section 6 of the proficiency check for single-pilot aeroplanes in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) by sole reference to instruments. 39 of 262  (3) An FNPT II or an FFS representing the relevant class or type of aeroplane may be used in the case in point (2)(i) and (ii), but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(A) in these circumstances shall be performed in an aeroplane. (b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Annex (Part-FCL). SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category FCL.625.H IR(H) — revalidation (a) Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(H): (1) when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL), for the relevant type of helicopter; (2) when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall: (i) pass only Section 5 and the relevant parts of Section 1 of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) for the relevant type of helicopter; and (ii) hold the relevant valid type rating. An FTD 2/3 or an FFS representing the relevant type of helicopter may be used in the case in point (2)(i), but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(H) in these circumstances shall be performed in a helicopter. (b) Cross-credit shall be given in accordance with Appendix 8 to this Annex (Part-FCL). FCL.630.H IR(H) — extension of privileges from single-engine to multi-engine helicopters Holders of an IR(H) valid for single-engine helicopters wishing to extend for the first time the IR(H) to multi- engine helicopters shall complete: (a) a training course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours of dual instrument instruction time, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II/III; and (b) Section 5 of the skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) on multi-engine helicopters. SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the airship category FCL.625.As IR(As) — revalidation Applicants for the revalidation of an IR(As): (a) when combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) for the relevant type of airship; (b) when not combined with the revalidation of a type rating, shall complete Section 5 and those parts of Section 1 relevant to the intended flight of the proficiency check for airships in accordance with 40 of 262  Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL). In this case, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS representing the relevant type may be used, but at least each alternate proficiency check for the revalidation of an IR(As) in these circumstances shall be performed in an airship. SUBPART H CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.700 Circumstances in which class or type ratings are required (a) Holders of a pilot licence shall not act in any capacity as pilots of an aircraft unless they have a valid and appropriate class or type rating, except in any of the following cases: (1) holders of an LAPL, SPL and BPL; (2) when undergoing skill tests or proficiency checks for renewal of class or type ratings; (3) when receiving flight instruction; and (4) when they hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820. (b) Notwithstanding point (a), in the case of flights related to the introduction or modification of aircraft types, pilots may hold a special certificate given by the competent authority, authorising them to perform the flights. This special certificate shall have its validity limited to the specific flights. FCL.705 Privileges of holders of a class or type rating The privileges of holders of a class or type rating are to act as pilots of the class or type of aircraft specified in the rating. FCL.710 Class and type ratings — variants (a) In order to extend their privileges to another variant of aircraft within one class or type rating, pilots shall undertake differences training or familiarisation. In the case of variants within a type rating, the differences training or familiarisation shall include the relevant elements defined in the OSD. (b) When the ‘Type rating and licence endorsement list’ published by the Agency requires differences training or when mandated in the OSD, this differences training shall be conducted at an ATO. (c) Notwithstanding the requirement in point (b), differences training for TMG, single-engine piston (SEP) and multi-engine piston (MEP) aeroplanes may be conducted by an appropriately qualified instructor unless mandated otherwise in the OSD. (d) If the variant has not been flown within a period of 2 years, further differences training or a proficiency check in that variant shall be required to maintain the privileges, except for types or variants within the SEP and TMG class ratings. 41 of 262 (e) The differences training or the proficiency check in that variant shall be entered in the pilots’ logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor or examiner as appropriate. FCL.725 Requirements for the issue of class and type ratings (a) Training course Applicants for the issue of a class or type rating shall complete a training course at an ATO. The type rating training course shall include the mandatory training elements for the relevant type as defined in the OSD. (b) Theoretical knowledge examination Applicants for a class or type rating shall pass a theoretical knowledge examination organised by the ATO to demonstrate the level of theoretical knowledge required for the safe operation of the applicable aircraft class or type. (1) For multi-pilot aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and comprise at least 100 multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the main subjects of the syllabus. (2) For single-pilot multi-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be written and the number of multiple-choice questions shall depend on the complexity of the aircraft. (3) For single-engine aircraft, the theoretical knowledge examination shall be conducted verbally by the examiner during the skill test to determine whether or not a satisfactory level of knowledge has been achieved. (4) For single-pilot aeroplanes that are classified as high-performance aeroplanes, the examination shall be written and comprise at least 100 multiple-choice questions distributed appropriately across the subjects of the syllabus. (5) For single-pilot single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes (sea), the examination shall be written and comprise at least 30 multiple-choice questions. (c) Skill test Applicants for the issue of a class or type rating shall pass a skill test in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) to demonstrate the skill required for the safe operation of the applicable class or type of aircraft. Applicants shall pass the skill test within a period of 6 months after commencement of the class or type rating training course and within a period of 6 months preceding the application for the issue of the class or type rating. (d) Applicants who already hold a type rating for an aircraft type, with the privilege for either single-pilot or multi-pilot operations, shall be considered to have already fulfilled the theoretical requirements when applying to add the privilege for the other form of operation on the same aircraft type. Applicants shall complete additional flight training for the other form of operation at an ATO or an AOC holder specifically authorised for such training by the competent authority. The form of operation shall be entered in the licence. 42 of 262 (e) Notwithstanding the points above, pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820 who were involved in development, certification or production flight tests for an aircraft type, and have completed either 50 hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC in test flights in that type, shall be entitled to apply for the issue of the relevant type rating, provided that they comply with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of that type rating, as established in this Subpart for the relevant aircraft category. FCL.740 Validity and renewal of class and type ratings (a) Validity The period of validity of class and type ratings shall be 1 year, except for single-pilot single-engine class ratings, for which the period of validity shall be 2 years, unless otherwise determined in the OSD. If pilots choose to fulfil the revalidation requirements earlier than prescribed in FCL.740.A, FCL.740.H, FCL.740.PL and FCL.740.As, the new validity period shall commence from the date of the proficiency check. (b) Renewal If a class or type rating has expired, applicants shall: (1) complete refresher training at an ATO, if deemed necessary by the ATO, to reach the level of proficiency necessary to safely operate the relevant class or type of aircraft except if they hold a valid rating for the same class or type of aircraft on a pilot licence issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and (2) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL). Notwithstanding the points above, pilots holding a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820 who were involved in the development, certification or production flight tests for an aircraft type, and have completed either 50 hours of total flight time or 10 hours of flight time as PIC in test flights in that type during the year prior to the date of their application, shall be entitled to apply for the revalidation or renewal of the relevant type rating. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the aeroplane category FCL.720.A Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of class or type ratings — aeroplanes Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, applicants for the issue of a class or type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the relevant rating: (a) Single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes Applicants for the issue of a first class or type rating on a single-pilot multi-engine aeroplane shall have completed at least 70 hours as PIC in aeroplanes. (b) Single-pilot aeroplanes Applicants for the issue of a first class or type rating on a single-pilot aeroplane seeking the privilege to operate the aeroplane in multi-pilot operations shall meet the requirements in points (e)(4) and (e)(5). 43 of 262 (c) Single-pilot high-performance non-complex aeroplanes Before starting flight training, applicants for the issue of a first class or type rating for a single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high-performance aeroplane shall: (1) have at least 200 hours of total flying experience, of which 70 hours as PIC in aeroplanes; and (2) comply with one of the following requirements: (i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of a course for additional theoretical knowledge undertaken at an ATO; or (ii) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL); or (iii) hold, in addition to a licence issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL), an ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR with theoretical knowledge credit for ATPL(A), issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. (d) Single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes Applicants for the issue of a first type rating for a complex single-pilot aeroplane classified as a high- performance aeroplane shall, in addition to meeting the requirements in point (c), hold or have held a single- or multi-engine IR(A), as appropriate and as established in Subpart G. (e) Multi-pilot aeroplanes Applicants for the issue of the first type rating course for a multi-pilot aeroplane shall be student pilots currently undergoing training on an MPL training course or comply with the following requirements: (1) have at least 70 hours of flight experience as PIC in aeroplanes; (2) hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A); (3) have passed the ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with this Annex (Part- FCL); (4) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course: (i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in aeroplanes; or (ii) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC in helicopters and have more than 100 hours of flight experience as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; or (iii) have at least 500 hours as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; or (iv) have at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, in commercial air transport in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements; and (5) have completed the training course specified in FCL.745.A. (f) Notwithstanding point (e), a Member State may issue a type rating with restricted privileges for a multi- pilot aeroplanes that allows holders of such rating to act as cruise relief co-pilots above Flight Level 200, provided that two other members of the crew have a type rating in accordance with point (e). 44 of 262 (g) Additional multi-pilot and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplane type ratings. Applicants for the issue of additional multi-pilot type ratings and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes type ratings shall hold a multi-engine IR(A). (h) When so determined in the OSD, the exercise of the privileges of a type rating may be initially limited to flight under the supervision of an instructor. The flight hours under supervision shall be entered in the pilots’ logbook or equivalent record and signed by the instructor. The limitation shall be removed when pilots demonstrate that the hours of flight under supervision required in the OSD have been completed. FCL.725.A Theoretical knowledge and flight instruction for the issue of class and type ratings — aeroplanes Unless otherwise determined in the OSD: (a) for single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes: (1) the theoretical knowledge course for a single-pilot multi-engine class rating shall include at least 7 hours of instruction in multi-engine aeroplane operations; and (2) the flight training course for a single-pilot multi-engine class or type rating shall include at least 2 hours and 30 minutes of dual flight instruction under normal conditions of multi-engine aeroplane operations, and not less than 3 hours 30 minutes of dual flight instruction in engine failure procedures and asymmetric flight techniques. (b) for single-pilot aeroplanes (sea): (1) the training course for single-pilot aeroplane (sea) ratings shall include theoretical knowledge and flight instruction; and (2) the flight training for a class or type rating (sea) for single-pilot aeroplanes (sea) shall include at least 8 hours of dual flight instruction if applicants hold the land version of the relevant class or type rating, or 10 hours if applicants do not hold such a rating; and (c) for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes and multi-pilot aeroplanes, the training courses shall include UPRT theoretical knowledge and flight instruction related to the specificities of the relevant class or type. FCL.730.A Specific requirements for pilots undertaking a zero flight time type rating (ZFTT) course — aeroplanes (a) Pilots undertaking instruction at a ZFTT course shall have completed, on a multi-pilot turbo-jet aeroplane certificated to the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness code or on a multi-pilot turbo-prop aeroplane having a maximum certificated take-off mass of not less than 10 tonnes or a certificated passenger seating configuration of more than 19 passengers, at least: (1) 1 500 hours of flight time or 250 route sectors if an FFS qualified to level ‘C grandfathered’ (CG), C or interim C is used during the course; and (2) 500 hours of flight time or 100 route sectors if an FFS qualified to level ‘D grandfathered’ (DG) or D is used during the course. (b) When pilots are changing from a turbo-prop to a turbo-jet aeroplane or from a turbo-jet to a turbo-prop aeroplane, additional simulator training shall be required. 45 of 262 FCL.735.A Multi-crew cooperation training course — aeroplanes (a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least: (1) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and (2) 20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours in the case of student pilots attending an ATP integrated course. An FNPT II MCC or an FFS shall be used. When the MCC training is combined with initial type rating training, the practical MCC training may be reduced to no less than 10 hours if the same FNPT II MCC or FFS is used for both the MCC and type rating training. (b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO. (c) Unless the MCC training course has been combined with a type rating course, on completion of the MCC training course, applicants shall be issued with a certificate of completion. (d) Applicants having completed an MCC training course for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the requirement in point (a)(1). FCL.740.A Revalidation of class and type ratings — aeroplanes (a) Revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings (1) For the revalidation of multi-engine class ratings and type ratings, applicants shall: (i) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) in the relevant class or type of aeroplane or an FSTD representing that class or type, within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and (ii) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least: (A) 10 route sectors as pilots of the relevant class or type of aeroplane; or (B) one route sector as pilots of the relevant class or type of aeroplane or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check. (2) Pilots shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in point (1)(ii) in case they: (i) are working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements; and (ii) have passed the operator’s proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the class or type rating. (3) The revalidation of an EIR or an IR(A), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a class or type rating. (b) Revalidation of single-pilot single-engine class ratings (1) SEP aeroplane class ratings and TMG ratings For the revalidation of single-pilot SEP aeroplane class ratings or TMG class ratings, applicants shall: 46 of 262  (i) within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating, pass a proficiency check in the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) with an examiner; or (ii) within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 12 hours of flight time in the relevant class, including: (A) 6 hours as PIC; (B) 12 take-offs and 12 landings; and (C) refresher training of at least 1 hour of total flight time with a flight instructor (FI) or a class rating instructor (CRI). Applicants shall be exempted from this refresher training if they have passed a class or type rating proficiency check, skill test or instructor assessment of competence in any other class or type of aeroplane. When applicants hold both a SEP (land) class rating and a TMG rating, they may complete the requirements in points (i) and (ii) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve revalidation of both ratings. (2) Single-pilot single-engine turbo-prop aeroplanes For the revalidation of single-engine turbo-prop class ratings, applicants shall pass a proficiency check in the relevant class in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) with an examiner, within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating. (3) When applicants hold both a SEP (land) and a SEP (sea) class rating, they may complete the requirements in point (1)(ii) in either class or a combination thereof, and achieve the fulfilment of these requirements for both ratings. At least 1 hour of the required PIC time and 6 of the required 12 take-offs and landings shall be completed in each class. (c) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a class or type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. FCL.745.A Advanced UPRT course — aeroplanes (a) The advanced UPRT course shall be completed at an ATO and shall comprise at least: (1) 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction; (2) preflight briefings and postflight debriefings; and (3) 3 hours of dual flight instruction with a flight instructor for aeroplanes (FI(A)) qualified in accordance with FCL.915(e) and consisting of advanced UPRT in an aeroplane qualified for the training task. (b) Upon completion of the advanced UPRT course, applicants shall be issued with a certificate of completion by the ATO. 47 of 262 SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the helicopter category FCL.720.H Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — helicopters Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, applicants for the issue of the first helicopter type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of the relevant rating: (a) Multi-pilot helicopters Applicants for the issue of the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type shall: (1) have at least 70 hours as PIC in helicopters; (2) except when the type rating course is combined with an MCC course: (i) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of an MCC course in helicopters; or (ii) have at least 500 hours as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes; or (iii) have at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on multi-engine helicopters; and (3) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations. (b) Applicants for the issue of the first type rating course for a multi-pilot helicopter type who are graduates from an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H), CPL(H)/IR or CPL(H) integrated course and who do not comply with the requirement in point (a)(1), shall have the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilots only. The limitation shall be removed once pilots have: (1) completed 70 hours as PIC or PICUS on helicopters; and (2) passed the multi-pilot skill test on the applicable helicopter type as PIC. (c) Single-pilot multi-engine helicopters Applicants for the issue of a first type rating for a single-pilot multi-engine helicopter shall: (1) before starting flight training: (i) have passed the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge examinations; or (ii) hold a certificate of completion of a pre-entry course conducted by an ATO. The course shall cover the following subjects of the ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge course: (A) Aircraft general knowledge: airframe/systems/power plant and instrument/electronics; (B) Flight performance and planning: mass and balance, performance; and (2) in the case they have not completed an ATP(H)/IR, ATP(H) or CPL(H)/IR integrated training course, have completed at least 70 hours as PIC in helicopters. 48 of 262 FCL.735.H Multi-crew cooperation training course — helicopters (a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least: (1) for MCC/IR: (i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and (ii) 20 hours of practical MCC training or 15 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 10 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and type rating; and (2) for MCC/VFR: (i) 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and (ii) 15 hours of practical MCC training or 10 hours, in the case of student pilots attending an ATP(H)/IR integrated course. When the MCC training is combined with the initial type rating training for a multi-pilot helicopter, the practical MCC training may be reduced to not less than 7 hours if the same FSTD is used for both MCC and type rating. (b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO. An FNPT II or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 (MCC) or an FFS shall be used. (c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of the MCC training course, applicants shall be issued with a certificate of completion. (d) Applicants having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the requirement in points (a)(1)(i) or (a)(2)(i), as applicable. (e) Applicants for MCC/IR training who have completed MCC/VFR training shall be exempted from the requirement in point (a)(1)(i) and shall complete 5 hours of practical MCC/IR training. FCL.740.H Revalidation of type ratings — helicopters (a) For the revalidation of type ratings for helicopters, applicants shall: (1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) in the relevant type of helicopter or an FSTD representing that type within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and (2) complete at least 2 hours as pilots of the relevant helicopter type within the validity period of the rating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours. (b) When applicants hold more than one type rating for SEP helicopters, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings by completing the proficiency check in only one of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed at least 2 hours of flight time as PIC in the other types during the validity period. The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type. (c) When applicants hold more than one type rating for single-engine turbine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass up to 3 175 kg, they may achieve revalidation of all the relevant type ratings 49 of 262  by passing the proficiency check in only one of the relevant types held, provided that they have completed: (1) 300 hours as PIC in helicopters; (2) 15 hours on each of the types held; and (3) at least 2 hours of PIC flight time on each of the other types during the validity period. The proficiency check shall be performed each time on a different type. (d) Pilots who pass a skill test for the issue of an additional type rating shall achieve revalidation for the relevant type ratings in the common groups, in accordance with points (b) and (c). (e) The revalidation of an IR(H), if held, may be combined with a proficiency check for a type rating. (f) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. In the cases of points (b) and (c), applicants shall not exercise their privileges in any of the types. SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category FCL.720.PL Experience requirements and prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, applicants for the first issue of a powered-lift type rating shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites: (a) for pilots of aeroplanes: (1) hold a CPL/IR(A) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL(A); (2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course; (3) have completed more than 100 hours as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in helicopters; (b) for pilots of helicopters: (1) hold a CPL/IR(H) with ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL/IR(H); (2) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course; (3) have completed more than 100 hours as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; and (4) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes; and (c) for pilots qualified to fly both aeroplanes and helicopters: (1) hold at least a CPL(H); (2) hold an IR and ATPL theoretical knowledge or an ATPL in either aeroplanes or helicopters; (3) hold a certificate of completion of an MCC course in either helicopters or aeroplanes; (4) have completed at least 100 hours as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters or aeroplanes; and 50 of 262  (5) have completed 40 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable, if they have no experience as ATPL or on multi-pilot aircraft. FCL.725.PL Flight instruction for the issue of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft The flight instruction part of the training course for a powered-lift type rating shall be completed in both the aircraft and an FSTD representing the aircraft and adequately qualified for this purpose. FCL.740.PL Revalidation of type ratings — powered-lift aircraft (a) For the revalidation of powered-lift type ratings, applicants shall: (1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) in the relevant type of powered-lift within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; (2) complete during the period of validity of the rating, at least: (i) 10 route sectors as pilots of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft; or (ii) one route sector as pilots of the relevant type of powered-lift aircraft or FFS, flown with an examiner. This route sector may be flown during the proficiency check. (b) Pilots shall be exempted from complying with the requirement in point (a)(2) in case they: (1) are working for a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements; and (2) have passed the operators proficiency check combined with the proficiency check for the revalidation of the type rating. (c) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the airship category FCL.720.As Prerequisites for the issue of type ratings — airships Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, applicants for the first issue of an airship type rating for multi-pilot airships shall comply with the following experience requirements and prerequisites: (a) have completed 70 hours of flight time as PIC in airships; and (b) hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC on airships. Applicants who do not comply with the requirement in point (b) shall have the type rating issued with the privileges limited to exercising functions as co-pilots only. The limitation shall be removed once they have completed 100 hours of flight time as PIC or PICUS of airships. 51 of 262 FCL.735.As Multi-crew cooperation training course — airships (a) The MCC training course shall comprise at least: (1) 12 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises; and (2) 5 hours of practical MCC training. An FNPT II or III qualified for MCC, an FTD 2/3 or an FFS shall be used. (b) The MCC training course shall be completed within 6 months at an ATO. (c) Unless the MCC course has been combined with a multi-pilot type rating course, on completion of the MCC training course applicants shall be issued with a certificate of completion. (d) Applicants having completed MCC training for any other category of aircraft shall be exempted from the requirements in point (a). FCL.740.As Revalidation of type ratings — airships (a) For the revalidation of type ratings for airships, applicants shall: (1) pass a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) in the relevant type of airship within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; and (2) complete at least 2 hours as pilots of the relevant airship type within the validity period of the rating. The duration of the proficiency check may be counted towards the 2 hours. The revalidation of an IR(As) may be combined with a proficiency check for the revalidation of a type rating. (b) Applicants who fail to achieve a pass in all sections of a proficiency check before the expiry date of a type rating shall not exercise the privileges of that rating until a pass in the proficiency check has been achieved. SUBPART I ADDITIONAL RATINGS FCL.800 Aerobatic rating (a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes, TMGs or sailplanes shall only undertake aerobatic flights when they hold an aerobatic rating. (b) Applicants for an aerobatic rating shall have completed: (1) at least 40 hours of flight time or, in the case of sailplanes, 120 launches as PIC in the appropriate aircraft category, completed after the issue of the licence; (2) a training course at an ATO, including: (i) theoretical knowledge instruction appropriate for the rating; and (ii) at least 5 hours or 20 flights of aerobatic instruction in the appropriate aircraft category. (c) The privileges of the aerobatic rating shall be limited to the aircraft category in which the flight instruction was completed. The privileges will be extended to another category of aircraft if pilots hold a 52 of 262  licence for that aircraft category and have successfully completed at least three dual training flights covering the full aerobatic training syllabus in that category of aircraft. FCL.805 Sailplane towing and banner towing ratings (a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly aeroplanes or TMGs shall only tow sailplanes or banners when they hold the appropriate sailplane towing or banner towing rating. (b) Applicants for a sailplane towing rating shall have completed: (1) at least 30 hours of flight time as PIC and 60 take-offs and landings in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs, completed after the issue of the licence; and (2) a training course at an ATO including: (i) theoretical knowledge instruction in towing operations and procedures; (ii) at least 10 training flights towing a sailplane, including at least 5 dual training flights; and (iii) except for holders of an LAPL(S) or an SPL, five familiarisation flights in a sailplane which is launched by an aircraft. (c) Applicants for a banner towing rating shall have completed: (1) at least 100 hours of flight time and 200 take-offs and landings as PIC in aeroplanes or TMGs, after the issue of the licence. At least 30 of these hours shall be in aeroplanes, if the activity is to be carried out in aeroplanes, or in TMGs, if the activity is to be carried out in TMGs; and (2) a training course at an ATO including: (i) theoretical knowledge instruction in towing operations and procedures; and (ii) at least 10 training flights towing a banner, including at least 5 dual training flights. (d) The privileges of the sailplane and banner towing ratings shall be limited to aeroplanes or TMGs, depending on which aircraft the flight instruction was completed. For banner towing, the privileges shall be limited to the towing method used for flight instruction. The privileges will be extended if pilots hold a licence for aeroplanes or TMGs and have successfully completed at least three dual training flights covering the full towing training syllabus in either aircraft and towing method for banner towing, as relevant. (e) In order to exercise the privileges of the sailplane or banner towing ratings, holders of the ratings shall have completed a minimum of five tows during the last 2 years. (f) When pilots do not comply with the requirement in point (e), before resuming the exercise of their privileges, they shall complete the missing tows with or under the supervision of an instructor. FCL.810 Night rating (a) Aeroplanes, TMGs, airships (1) If the privileges of an LAPL, an SPL or a PPL for aeroplanes, TMGs or airships are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall have completed a training course at an ATO. The course shall be completed within 6 months and shall comprise: 53 of 262  (i) theoretical knowledge instruction; and (ii) at least 5 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least: (A) 1 hour of cross-country navigation with at least one dual cross-country flight of at least 50 km (27 NM); (B) five solo take-offs; and (C) five solo full-stop landings. (2) Before completing the training at night, LAPL holders shall have completed the basic instrument flight training required for the issue of a PPL. (3) When applicants hold privileges for both a SEP (land) and a TMG class rating, they may complete the requirements in point (1) in either a TMG or a SEP (land) or in both of them. (b) Helicopters If the privileges of a PPL for helicopters are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall have completed: (1) at least 100 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters after the issue of the licence, including at least 60 hours as PIC in helicopters and 20 hours of cross-country flight; and (2) a training course at an ATO. The course shall be completed within 6 months and shall comprise: (i) theoretical knowledge instruction; (ii) 10 hours of helicopter dual instrument instruction time; and (iii) 5 hours of flight time at night, including at least 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing. (3) Applicants who hold or have held an IR in an aeroplane or TMG shall be credited with 5 hours towards the requirement in point (2)(ii) above. (c) Balloons If the privileges of an LAPL for balloons or a BPL are to be exercised in VFR conditions at night, applicants shall complete at least two dual training flights at night of at least 1 hour each. FCL.815 Mountain rating (a) Privileges The privileges of holders of a mountain rating are to conduct flights with aeroplanes or TMGs to and from surfaces designated as requiring such a rating by the appropriate authorities designated by the Member States. The initial mountain rating may be obtained either on: (1) wheels, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are not covered by snow; or (2) skis, to grant the privilege to fly to and from such surfaces when they are covered by snow. 54 of 262  The privileges of the initial rating may be extended to either wheel or ski privileges when pilots have undertaken an appropriate additional training course, including theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training, with a mountain flight instructor. (b) Training course Applicants for a mountain rating shall have completed, within a period of 2 years, a course of theoretical knowledge instruction and flight training at an ATO. The content of the course shall be appropriate to the privileges granted. (c) Skill test After the completion of the training, applicants shall pass a skill test with a flight examiner (FE) qualified for this purpose. The skill test shall contain: (1) a verbal examination of theoretical knowledge; and (2) six landings on at least two different surfaces designated as requiring a mountain rating other than the surface of departure. (d) Validity A mountain rating shall be valid for a period of 2 years. (e) Revalidation For the revalidation of a mountain rating, applicants shall: (1) have completed at least six landings on a surface designated as requiring a mountain rating in the past 2 years; or (2) pass a proficiency check. The proficiency check shall comply with the requirements in point (c). (f) Renewal If the rating has lapsed, applicants shall comply with the requirement in point (e)(2). FCL.820 Flight test rating (a) Holders of a pilot licence for aeroplanes or helicopters shall only act as PIC in category 1 or 2 flight tests, as defined in Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748 /2012, when they hold a flight test rating. (b) The obligation to hold a flight test rating established in point (a) shall only apply to flight tests conducted on: (1) helicopters certificated or to be certificated in accordance with the standards of CS-27 or CS-29 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or (2) aeroplanes certificated or to be certificated in accordance with: (i) the standards of CS-25 or equivalent airworthiness codes; or (ii) the standards of CS-23 or equivalent airworthiness codes, except for aeroplanes with a maximum take-off mass of less than 2 000 kg. (c) The privileges of holders of a flight test rating are to, within the relevant aircraft category: 55 of 262  (1) in the case of a category 1 flight test rating, conduct all categories of flight tests, as defined in Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, either as PIC or co-pilots; (2) in the case of a category 2 flight test rating: (i) conduct category 1 flight tests, as defined in Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012: (A) as co-pilots; or (B) as PIC, in the case of aeroplanes referred to in point (b)(2)(ii), except for those within the commuter category or having a design diving speed above 0,6 mach or a maximum ceiling above 25 000 ft (7 620 m); (ii) conduct all other categories of flight tests, as defined in Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748 /2012, either as PIC or co-pilots; and (3) conduct flights without a type or class rating as defined in Subpart H, except that the flight test rating shall not be used for commercial air transport operations. (d) Applicants for the first issue of a flight test rating shall: (1) hold at least a CPL and an IR in the appropriate aircraft category; (2) have completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time in the appropriate aircraft category, of which at least 400 hours as PIC; and (3) have completed at an ATO a training course appropriate to the intended aircraft and category of flights. The training shall cover at least the following subjects: (i) performance; (ii) stability and control/handling qualities; (iii) systems; (iv) test management; and (v) risk/safety management. (e) The privileges of holders of a flight test rating may be extended to another category of flight test and another category of aircraft when they have completed an additional course of training at an ATO. FCL.825 En route instrument rating (EIR) (a) Privileges and conditions (1) The privileges of holders of an EIR are to conduct flights by day under IFR in the en route phase of flight, with an aeroplane for which a class or type rating is held. The privilege may be extended to conduct flights by night under IFR in the en route phase of flight if pilots hold a night rating in accordance with FCL.810. (2) Holders of the EIR shall only commence or continue a flight on which they intend to exercise the privileges of their rating if the latest available meteorological information indicates that: (i) the weather conditions on departure are such as to enable the segment of the flight from take-off to a planned VFR-to-IFR transition to be conducted in compliance with VFR; and 56 of 262  (ii) at the estimated time of arrival at the planned destination aerodrome, the weather conditions will be such as to enable the segment of the flight from an IFR-to-VFR transition to landing to be conducted in compliance with VFR. (b) Prerequisites Applicants for the EIR shall hold at least a PPL(A) and shall have completed at least 20 hours of cross- country flight time as PIC in aeroplanes. (c) Training course Applicants for an EIR shall have completed, within a period of 3 years at an ATO: (1) at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.615; and (2) instrument flight instruction, during which: (i) the flying training for a single-engine EIR shall include at least 15 hours of instrument flight time under instruction; and (ii) the flying training for a multi-engine EIR shall include at least 16 hours of instrument flight time under instruction, of which at least 4 hours shall be in multi-engine aeroplanes. (d) Theoretical knowledge Prior to taking the skill test, applicants shall demonstrate a level of theoretical knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted, in the subjects referred to in FCL.615(b). (e) Skill test After the completion of the training, applicants shall pass a skill test in an aeroplane with an instrument rating examiner (IRE). For a multi-engine EIR, the skill test shall be taken in a multi-engine aeroplane. For a single-engine EIR, the test shall be taken in a single-engine aeroplane. (f) By way of derogation from points (c) and (d), holders of a single-engine EIR who also hold a multi-engine class or type rating wishing to obtain a multi-engine EIR for the first time, shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 2 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in the en route phase of flight in multi-engine aeroplanes and shall pass the skill test referred to in point (e). (g) Validity, revalidation and renewal (1) An EIR shall be valid for 1 year. (2) Applicants for the revalidation of an EIR shall: (i) pass a proficiency check in an aeroplane within the 3 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating; or (ii) within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the rating, complete 6 hours as PIC under IFR and a training flight of at least 1 hour with an instructor holding privileges to provide training for the IR(A) or EIR. (3) For each alternate subsequent revalidation, holders of the EIR shall pass a proficiency check in accordance with point (g)(2)(i). (4) If an EIR has expired, in order to renew their privileges, applicants shall: 57 of 262  (i) complete refresher training provided by an instructor holding privileges to provide training for the IR(A) or EIR to reach the level of proficiency needed; and (ii) pass a proficiency check. (5) If the EIR has not been revalidated or renewed within 7 years from the last validity date, holders will also be required to pass again the EIR theoretical knowledge examinations in accordance with FCL.615(b). (6) For a multi-engine EIR, the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal and the training flight required in point (g)(2)(ii) have to be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane. If pilots also hold a single-engine EIR, this proficiency check shall also achieve revalidation or renewal of the single- engine EIR. The training flight completed in a multi-engine aeroplane shall also fulfil the training flight requirement for the single-engine EIR. (h) When applicants for the EIR have completed instrument flight time under instruction with an IRI for aeroplanes or an FI for aeroplanes holding the privilege to provide training for the IR or EIR, these hours may be credited towards the hours required in point (c)(2)(i) and (ii) up to a maximum of 5 or 6 hours respectively. The 4 hours of instrument flight instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes required in point (c)(2)(ii) shall not be subject to this credit. (1) To determine the number of hours to be credited and to establish the training needs, applicants shall complete a pre-entry assessment at the ATO. (2) The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor. (i) Applicants for the EIR, holding a Part-FCL PPL or CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in accordance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country, may be credited in full towards the training course requirements mentioned in point (c). In order to be issued with the EIR, applicants shall: (1) pass the skill test for the EIR; (2) by way of derogation from point (d), demonstrate during the skill test towards the examiner that they have acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and (3) have a minimum experience of at least 25 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC in aeroplanes. FCL.830 Sailplane cloud flying rating (a) Holders of a pilot licence with privileges to fly sailplanes shall only operate a sailplane or a powered sailplane, excluding TMGs, within cloud when they hold a sailplane cloud flying rating. (b) Applicants for a sailplane cloud flying rating shall have at least: (1) completed 30 hours as PIC in sailplanes or powered sailplanes after the issue of the licence; (2) completed a training course at an ATO including: (i) theoretical knowledge instruction; and 58 of 262  (ii) at least 2 hours of dual flight instruction in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments, of which a maximum of 1 hour may be completed in TMGs; and (3) passed a skill test with an FE qualified for this purpose. (c) Holders of an EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited against the requirement in point (b)(2)(i). By way of derogation from point (b)(2)(ii), at least 1 hour of dual flight instruction in a sailplane or powered sailplane, excluding TMGs, controlling the sailplane solely by reference to instruments shall be completed. (d) Holders of a cloud flying rating shall only exercise their privileges when they have completed in the last two years at least 1 hour of flight time, or five flights as PIC exercising the privileges of the cloud flying rating, in sailplanes or powered sailplanes, excluding TMGs. (e) Holders of a cloud flying rating who do not comply with the requirements in point (d) shall, before they resume the exercise of their privileges: (1) pass a proficiency check with an FE qualified for this purpose; or (2) perform the additional flight time or flights required in point (d) with a qualified instructor. (f) Holders of a valid EIR or an IR(A) shall be credited in full against the requirements in point (d). SUBPART J INSTRUCTORS SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.900 Instructor certificates (a) General Instructors shall only carry out: (1) flight instruction in aircraft when they hold: (i) a pilot licence issued or accepted in accordance with this Regulation; and (ii) an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart; and (2) synthetic flight instruction or MCC instruction when they hold an instructor certificate appropriate to the instruction given, issued in accordance with this Subpart. (b) Special conditions (1) The competent authority may issue a specific certificate granting privileges for flight instruction when compliance with the requirements established in this Subpart is not possible in the case of the introduction of: 59 of 262  (i) new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator’s fleet; or (ii) new training courses in this Annex (Part-FCL). Such a certificate shall be limited to the training flights necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft or the new training course and its validity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year. (2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with point (b)(1) who wish to apply for the issue of an instructor certificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements established for that category of instructor. Notwithstanding FCL.905.TRI(b), a TRI certificate issued in accordance with this point will include the privilege to instruct for the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate for the relevant type. (c) Instruction outside the territory of the Member States (1) Notwithstanding point (a), in the case of flight instruction provided in an ATO located outside the territory of the Member States, the competent authority may issue an instructor certificate to applicants holding a pilot licence, which shall be in any case at least a CPL, and a rating or a certificate issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, for which they are authorised to instruct, provided that applicants: (i) comply with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant instructor certificate; and (ii) demonstrate to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise instructional privileges in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL). (2) The certificate shall be limited to providing flight instruction: (i) in ATOs located outside the territory of the Member States; and (ii) to student pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which flight instruction is given. FCL.915 General prerequisites and requirements for instructors (a) General Applicants for the issue of an instructor certificate shall be at least 18 years of age. (b) Additional requirements for instructors providing flight instruction in aircraft Applicants for the issue of or holders of an instructor certificate with privileges to conduct flight instruction in an aircraft shall unless otherwise specified: (1) for licence training, hold at least the licence for which flight instruction is to be given; (2) for a rating training, hold the relevant rating for which flight instruction is to be given; (3) except in the case of flight test instructors (FTIs), have: (i) completed at least 15 hours of flight time as pilots of the class or type of aircraft on which flight instruction is to be given, of which a maximum of 7 hours may be in an FSTD representing the class or type of aircraft, if applicable; or 60 of 262  (ii) passed an assessment of competence for the relevant category of instructor on that class or type of aircraft; and (4) be entitled to act as PIC in the aircraft during such flight instruction. (c) Credit towards further ratings and for the purpose of revalidation (1) Applicants for further instructor certificates may be credited with the teaching and learning skills already demonstrated for the instructor certificate held. (2) Hours flown as an examiner during skill tests or proficiency checks shall be credited in full towards revalidation requirements for all instructor certificates held. (d) Credit for extension to further types shall take into account the relevant elements as defined in the OSD. (e) Additional requirements for instructing in a training course in accordance with FCL.745.A: (1) In addition to (b), before acting as instructors for a training course according to FCL.745.A, holders of an instructor certificate shall: (i) have at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes, including 200 hours of flight instruction; (ii) after complying with the experience requirements in point (e)(1)(i), have completed a UPRT instructor training course at an ATO, during which the competence of applicants shall have been assessed continuously; and (iii) upon completion of the course, have been issued with a certificate of course completion by the ATO, whose Head of Training (HT) shall have entered the privileges specified in point (e)(1) in the logbook of the applicants. (2) The privileges referred to in point (e)(1) shall only be exercised if instructors have, during the last year: (i) provided at least 1 hour of flight training as an instructor during a course in accordance with FCL.745.A; or (ii) completed refresher training at an ATO to the satisfaction of the HT. (3) Instructors holding the privileges specified in point (e)(1) may act as instructors for a course as specified in point (e)(1)(ii), provided that they: (i) have 25 hours of flight instruction experience during training according to FCL745.A; (ii) have completed an assessment of competence for this privilege; and (iii) comply with the recency requirements in point (e)(2). (4) These privileges shall be entered in the logbook of the instructors and signed by the examiner. FCL.920 Instructor competencies and assessment All instructors shall be trained to achieve the following competences: (a) prepare resources; (b) create a climate conducive to learning; 61 of 262 (c) present knowledge; (d) integrate threat and error management (TEM) and crew resource management (CRM); (e) manage time to achieve training objectives; (f) facilitate learning; (g) assess trainee performance; (h) monitor and review progress; (i) evaluate training sessions; and (j) report outcome. FCL.925 Additional requirements for instructors for the MPL (a) Instructors conducting training for the MPL shall: (1) have successfully completed an MPL instructor training course at an ATO; and (2) additionally, for the basic, intermediate and advanced phases of the MPL integrated training course: (i) be experienced in multi-pilot operations; and (ii) have completed initial CRM training with a commercial air transport operator approved in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements. (b) MPL instructors training course (1) The MPL instructor training course shall comprise at least 14 hours of training. Upon completion of the training course, applicants shall undertake an assessment of instructor competencies and of knowledge of the competency-based approach to training. (2) The assessment shall consist of a practical demonstration of flight instruction in the appropriate phase of the MPL training course. This assessment shall be conducted by an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K. (3) Upon successful completion of the MPL training course, the ATO shall issue an MPL instructor qualification certificate to applicants. (c) In order to maintain the privileges, the instructor shall have, within the preceding 12 months, conducted within an MPL training course: (1) one simulator session of at least 3 hours; or (2) one air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising at least two take-offs and landings. (d) If instructors have not fulfilled the requirements in point (c), before exercising the privileges to conduct flight instruction for the MPL, they shall: (1) complete refresher training at an ATO to reach the level of competence necessary to pass the assessment of instructor competencies; and (2) pass the assessment of instructor competencies as set out in point (b)(2). 62 of 262 FCL.930 Training course Applicants for an instructor certificate shall have completed a course of theoretical knowledge and flight instruction at an ATO. In addition to the specific elements prescribed in this Annex (Part-FCL) for each category of instructor, the course shall contain the elements required in FCL.920. FCL.935 Assessment of competence (a) Except for multi-crew cooperation instructors (MCCIs), synthetic training instructors (STIs), mountain rating instructors (MIs) and FTIs, applicants for the issue of an instructor certificate shall pass an assessment of competence in the appropriate aircraft class, type or FSTD to demonstrate to an examiner qualified in accordance with Subpart K the ability to instruct student pilots to the level required for the issue of the relevant licence, rating or certificate. (b) This assessment shall include: (1) the demonstration of the competencies described in FCL.920, during preflight, postflight and theoretical knowledge instruction; (2) oral theoretical examinations on the ground, preflight and postflight briefings and in-flight demonstrations in the appropriate aircraft class, type or FSTD; and (3) exercises adequate to evaluate the instructor’s competencies. (c) The assessment shall be performed on the same class or type of aircraft or FSTD used for the flight instruction. (d) When an assessment of competence is required for the revalidation of an instructor certificate, applicants who fail to achieve a pass in the assessment before the expiry date of an instructor certificate shall not exercise the privileges of that certificate until the assessment has been successfully completed. FCL.940 Validity of instructor certificates With the exception of MIs, and without prejudice to FCL.900(b)(1) and FCL.915(e)(2), instructor certificates shall be valid for a period of 3 years. FCL.945 Obligations for instructors Upon completion of the training flight for the revalidation of a SEP or TMG class rating in accordance with FCL.740.A (b)(1) and only in the event of fulfilment of all the other revalidation criteria required by FCL.740.A (b)(1), the instructor shall endorse the applicants' licence with the new expiry date of the rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority responsible for the applicants' licence. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the flight instructor — FI FCL.905.FI Privileges and conditions The privileges of FIs are to conduct flight instruction for the issue, revalidation or renewal of: (a) a PPL, an SPL, a BPL and an LAPL in the appropriate aircraft category; 63 of 262 (b) class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes; class and group extensions for balloons and class extensions for sailplanes; (c) class and type ratings for single-pilot single-engine aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations, provided that they: (1) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; or (2) have at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes; and (3) have completed the training course for an MCCI in accordance with FCL.930.MCCI; (d) type ratings for single or multi-pilot airships; (e) a CPL in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that they have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots in that aircraft category, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction; (f) the night rating, provided that they: (1) are qualified to fly at night in the appropriate aircraft category; (2) have demonstrated the ability to instruct at night to an FI qualified in accordance with point (j) below; and (3) comply with the night experience requirement in FCL.060(b)(2); (g) a towing, aerobatic or, in the case of FIs(S), a cloud flying rating, provided that such privileges are held and the FIs have demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with point (j); (h) an EIR or IR in the appropriate aircraft category, provided that they have: (1) at least 200 hours of flight time under IFR, of which up to 50 hours may be instrument ground time in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II; (2) completed as student pilots the IRI training course and have passed an assessment of competence for the IRI certificate; and (3) in addition: (i) for multi-engine aeroplanes, met the prerequisites established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements established in FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935; and (ii) for multi-engine helicopters, met the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and the prerequisites for the TRI(H) training course established in FCL.915.TRI(d)(2); (i) single-pilot multi-engine class or type ratings, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, provided that they meet: (1) in the case of aeroplanes, the prerequisites for the CRI certificate established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements in FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935; and (2) in the case of helicopters, the requirements established in FCL.910.TRI(c)(1) and the prerequisites for the TRI(H) training course established in FCL.915.TRI(d)(2); (j) an FI, an IRI, a CRI, an STI or an MI certificate provided that they have: (1) completed at least: 64 of 262  (i) in the case of FI(S), at least 50 hours or 150 launches of flight instruction in sailplanes; (ii) in the case of FI(B), at least 50 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction in balloons; (iii) in all other cases, 500 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category; and (2) passed an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in the appropriate aircraft category to demonstrate to a flight instructor examiner (FIE) the ability to instruct for the FI certificate; (k) an MPL, provided that the FIs: (1) for the core flying phase of the training, have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes, including at least 200 hours of flight instruction; (2) for the basic phase of the training: (i) hold a multi-engine aeroplane IR and the privilege to instruct for an IR; and (ii) have at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations; and (3) in the case of FIs already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, the requirement in point (2)(ii) may be replaced by the completion of a structured course of training consisting of: (i) MCC qualification; (ii) observation of five sessions of flight instruction in Phase 3 of an MPL course; (iii) observation of five sessions of flight instruction in Phase 4 of an MPL course; (iv) observation of five operator recurrent line-oriented flight training sessions; and (v) the content of the MCCI course. In this case, FIs shall conduct their first five instructor sessions under the supervision of a TRI(A), an MCCI(A) or an SFI(A) qualified for MPL flight instruction. FCL.910.FI Restricted privileges (a) FIs shall have their privileges limited to conducting flight instruction under the supervision of an FI for the same category of aircraft nominated by the ATO for this purpose, in the following cases: (1) for the issue of the PPL, SPL, BPL and LAPL; (2) in all integrated courses at PPL level, in the case of aeroplanes and helicopters; (3) for class and type ratings for single-pilot, single-engine aircraft, except for single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes, class and group extensions in the case of balloons and class extensions in the case of sailplanes; and (4) for the night, towing or aerobatic ratings. (b) Whilst conducting training under supervision, in accordance with point (a), FIs shall not have the privilege to authorise student pilots to conduct first solo flights and first solo cross-country flights. (c) The limitations in points (a) and (b) shall be removed from the FI certificate when FIs have completed at least: 65 of 262  (1) for the FI(A), 100 hours of flight instruction in aeroplanes or TMGs and, in addition, have supervised at least 25 student solo flights; (2) for the FI(H), 100 hours of flight instruction in helicopters and, in addition, have supervised at least 25 student solo flight air exercises; and (3) for the FI(As), FI(S) and FI(B), 15 hours or 50 take-offs of flight instruction covering the full training syllabus for the issue of a PPL(As), an LAPL(S), an SPL, an LAPL(B) or a BPL in the appropriate aircraft category. FCL.915.FI Prerequisites (a) Applicants for the issue of an FI(A) or an FI(H) certificate shall: (1) have received at least 10 hours of instrument flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category, of which not more than 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FSTD; and (2) have completed 20 hours of VFR cross-country flight in the appropriate aircraft category as PIC. (b) Applicants for the FI(A) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a): (1) hold at least a CPL(A); or (2) hold at least a PPL(A) and shall have: (i) met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge in accordance with FCL.310 and FCL.315, except for FIs(A) providing training for the LAPL(A) only; and (ii) completed at least 200 hours of flight time on aeroplanes or TMGs, of which 150 hours as PIC; (3) have completed at least 30 hours on single-engine piston-powered aeroplanes, of which at least 5 hours shall have been completed during the 6 months preceding the pre-entry flight test set out in FCL.930.FI(a); and (4) have completed one VFR cross-country flight as PIC, including a flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. (c) Applicants for the FI(H) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), have completed 250 hours total flight time as pilots of helicopters, of which at least: (1) 100 hours shall be as PIC if applicants hold at least a CPL(H); or (2) 200 hours as PIC if applicants hold at least a PPL(H) and have met the requirements for CPL theoretical knowledge. (d) Applicants for the FI(As) certificate shall have completed 500 hours of flight time on airships as PIC, of which 400 hours shall be as PIC holding a CPL(As). (e) Applicants for the FI(S) certificate shall have completed 100 hours of flight time and 200 launches as PIC in sailplanes. Additionally, where applicants wish to give flight instruction in TMGs, they shall have completed 30 hours of flight time as PIC in TMGs and an additional assessment of competence in a TMG in accordance with FCL.935 with an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(j); 66 of 262 (f) Applicants for the FI(B) certificate shall have completed 75 hours of balloon flight time as PIC, of which at least 15 hours have to be in the class for which flight instruction will be given. FCL.930.FI Training course (a) Applicants for the FI certificate shall have passed a specific pre-entry flight test with an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i) within the 6 months preceding the start of the course, to assess their ability to undertake the course. This pre-entry flight test shall be based on the proficiency check for class and type ratings in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL). (b) The FI training course shall include: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; (2) in the case of an FI(A), an FI(H) or an FI(As), at least 100 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including progress tests; (3) in the case of an FI(B) or an FI(S), at least 30 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction, including progress tests; (4) in the case of an FI(A) and an FI(H), at least 30 hours of flight instruction, of which 25 hours shall be dual flight instruction, of which 5 hours may be conducted in an FFS, an FNPT I or II or an FTD 2/3; (5) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction, of which 15 hours shall be dual flight instruction; (6) in the case of an FI(S), at least 6 hours of flight instruction or 20 take-offs during flight instruction; (7) in the case of an FI(S) providing training in TMGs, at least 6 hours of dual flight instruction in TMGs; and (8) in the case of an FI(B), at least 3 hours of flight instruction including three take-offs. When applying for an FI certificate in another category of aircraft, pilots holding or having held an FI(A), an FI(H) or an FI(As) shall be credited with 55 hours towards the requirement in point (b)(2) or with 18 hours towards the requirement in point (b)(3). (c) Applicants for an FI certificate who hold or have held any instructor certificate issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) shall be fully credited towards the requirements in point (b)(1). FCL.940.FI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation (1) For the revalidation of an FI certificate, holders shall fulfil two of the following three requirements: (i) Complete: (A) in the case of an FI(A) and an FI(H), at least 50 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category during the period of validity of the certificate as FIs, TRIs, CRIs, IRIs, MIs or examiners. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been 67 of 262  completed within the last 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate; (B) in the case of an FI(As), at least 20 hours of flight instruction in airships as FIs, IRIs or as examiners during the period of validity of the certificate. If the privileges to instruct for the IR are to be revalidated, 10 of these hours shall be flight instruction for an IR and shall have been completed within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate; (C) in the case of an FI(S), at least 30 hours or 60 take-offs of flight instruction in sailplanes, powered sailplanes or TMG as FIs or as examiners during the period of validity of the certificate; and (D) in the case of an FI(B), at least 6 hours of flight instruction in balloons as FIs or as examiners during the period of validity of the certificate. (ii) Receive instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or a competent authority, within the validity period of the FI certificate. (iii) Pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935, within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FI certificate. (2) For the at least each alternate subsequent revalidation in the case of FI(A) or FI(H), or each third revalidation, in the case of FI(As), FI(S) and FI(B), holders shall have to pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (b) Renewal (1) If the FI certificate has lapsed for less than 3 years, applicants shall, within a period of 12 months before renewal: receive instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO or a competent authority as required in point (a)(1)(ii) and pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (2) If the FI certificate has lapsed for more than 3 years, applicants shall, within a period of 1 year before renewal, receive instructor refresher training as an FI at an ATO following a training syllabus established by the ATO and pass an assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the type rating instructor — TRI FCL.905.TRI Privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of TRIs are to instruct for: (1) the revalidation and renewal of an EIR or an IR, provided they hold a valid IR; and (2) the issue of a TRI or SFI certificate, provided that (i) holders have at least 50 hours of instructional experience as TRIs or SFIs; and 68 of 262  (ii) they have conducted the flight instruction syllabus of the TRI training course according to FCL.930.TRI(a)(3) under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a qualified TRI nominated by the HT of an ATO. (b) The privileges of TRIs for single-pilot aeroplanes are to instruct for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes when applicants seek privileges to operate in single-pilot operations. The privileges of TRIs for single-pilot aeroplanes may be extended to flight instruction for single- pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that they: (i) hold an MCCI certificate; or (ii) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (2) the MPL course on the basic phase, provided that they have the privileges extended to multi-pilot operations and hold or have held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate. (c) The privileges of TRIs for multi-pilot aeroplanes are to instruct for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for: (i) multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (ii) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes when applicants seek privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations; (2) MCC training; and (3) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or IRI(A) certificate. (d) The privileges of TRIs for helicopters are to instruct for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings; (2) MCC training, provided they hold a multi-pilot helicopter type rating; and (3) the extension of the single-engine IR(H) to multi-engine IR(H). (e) The privileges of TRIs for powered-lift aircraft are to instruct for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of powered-lift type ratings; and (2) MCC training. FCL.910.TRI Restricted privileges (a) General If the TRI training is carried out in an FFS only, the privileges of TRIs shall be restricted to training in the FFS. The restriction shall be removed when TRIs have completed the respective parts of the training programme as required by FCL.930.TRI(a). 69 of 262  In this case, TRIs may conduct line flying under supervision or landing training, provided that the TRI training course has included additional training for this purpose. (b) TRIs for aeroplanes and for powered-lift aircraft — TRI(A) and TRI(PL) The privileges of TRIs are restricted to the type of aeroplane or powered-lift aircraft in which the training and the assessment of competence were conducted. Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, the privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further types when TRIs have: (1) completed within the 12 months preceding the application, at least 15 route sectors, including take-offs and landings on the applicable aircraft type, of which 7 sectors may be completed in an FFS; (2) completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI course; (3) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or a type rating examiner (TRE) qualified in accordance with Subpart K their ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a type rating, including preflight, postflight and theoretical knowledge instruction. The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants in accordance with the OSD when TRIs have completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI course. (c) TRIs for helicopters — TRI(H) (1) The privileges of TRIs(H) are restricted to the type of helicopter in which the skill test for the issue of the TRI certificate was taken. Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, the privileges of the TRIs shall be extended to further types when they have: (i) completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI course; (ii) conducted at least 2 hours of flight instruction in the applicable type, under the supervision of an adequately qualified TRI(H); and (iii) passed the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in order to demonstrate to an FIE or a TRE qualified in accordance with Subpart K their ability to instruct a pilot to the level required for the issue of a type rating, including preflight, postflight and theoretical knowledge instruction. The privileges of TRIs shall be extended to further variants in accordance with the OSD when the TRIs have completed the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI course. (2) Before the privileges of TRIs(H) are extended from single-pilot to multi-pilot on the same type of helicopters, holders shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type. (d) Notwithstanding the points above, holders of a TRI certificate who have been issued with a type rating in accordance with FCL.725(e) shall be entitled to have their TRI privileges extended to that new type of aircraft. 70 of 262 FCL.915.TRI Prerequisites (a) Applicants for the issue of a TRI certificate shall hold a CPL, an MPL or an ATPL in the applicable aircraft category; (b) Applicants for the issue of a TRI(MPA) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a): (1) have completed 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (2) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilots of the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type; (c) Applicants for the issue of a TRI(SPA) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a): (1) have completed, within the 12 months preceding the date of application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC in the applicable aeroplane type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type; and (2) comply with one of the following requirements: (i) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes, including 30 hours as PIC in the applicable type of aeroplane; or (ii) hold or have held an FI certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes with IR(A) privileges. (d) Additionally to the requirement in point (a), applicants for the issue of a TRI(H) certificate for: (1) single-pilot single-engine helicopters, shall have completed 250 hours as pilots of helicopters; (2) single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, shall have completed 500 hours as pilots of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC in single-pilot multi-engine helicopters; and (3) multi-pilot helicopters, shall have completed 1 000 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters, including: (i) 350 hours as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; or (ii) for applicants already holding a TRI(H) certificate for single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, 100 hours as pilots of that type in multi-pilot operations. Holders of an FI(H) certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirements in points (1) and (2) in the relevant single-pilot helicopter. (e) Applicants for the issue of a TRI(PL) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), have completed: (1) 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes, powered-lift or multi-pilot helicopters; and (2) within the 12 months preceding the application, 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings, as PIC or co-pilots of the applicable powered-lift type, of which 15 sectors may be completed in an FFS representing that type. 71 of 262 FCL.930.TRI Training course (a) The TRI training course shall include, at least: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; (2) 10 hours of technical training relevant to the appropriate aircraft, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills; and (3) 5 hours of flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft or a simulator representing that aircraft for single-pilot aircraft and 10 hours for multi-pilot aircraft or a simulator representing that aircraft. (b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(1). (c) Applicants for the issue of a TRI certificate who hold an SFI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully credited towards the requirements of this point for the issue of a TRI certificate restricted to flight instruction in simulators. FCL.935.TRI Assessment of competence (a) The assessment of competence for a TRI for MPA and PL shall be conducted in an FFS. If no FFS is available, the aircraft can be used. (b) The assessment of competence for a TRI for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes and helicopters shall be conducted in: (1) an available and accessible FFS; or (2) a combination of FSTD(s) and the aircraft if an FFS is not available or accessible; or (3) the aircraft if no FSTD is available or accessible . FCL.940.TRI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation (1) Aeroplanes For the revalidation of a TRI(A) certificate, applicants shall, within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the certificate, fulfil two of the following three requirements: (i) Conduct one of the following parts of a complete type rating or recurrent training course: simulator session of at least 3 hours or one air exercise of at least 1 hour comprising a minimum of two take-offs and landings; (ii) Receive instructor refresher training as a TRI(A) at an ATO; and (iii) Pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (2) Helicopters and powered-lift For the revalidation of a TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate, applicants shall, within the validity period of the TRI certificate, fulfil two of the following three requirements: 72 of 262  (i) Complete 50 hours of flight instruction in each of the types of aircraft for which instructional privileges are held or in an FSTD representing those types, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the TRI certificate. In the case of TRI(PL), these hours of flight instruction shall be flown as a TRI or type rating examiner (TRE), or SFI or synthetic flight examiner (SFE). In the case of TRI(H), time flown as FIs, instrument rating instructors (IRIs), STIs or as any kind of examiners shall also be relevant for this purpose. (ii) Receive instructor refresher training as a TRI(H) or TRI(PL), as relevant, at an ATO. (iii) Pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (3) For at least each alternate revalidation of a TRI certificate, holders shall have to pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (4) If TRIs hold a certificate in more than one type of aircraft and if it is part of a recommendation of the OSD within the same category, the assessment of competence taken on one of those types shall revalidate the TRI certificate for the other types held within the same category of aircraft. (5) Specific requirements for the revalidation of a TRI(H) certificate TRIs(H) holding an FI(H) certificate in the relevant type shall have full credit towards the requirements in point (a). In this case, the TRI(H) certificate will be valid until the expiry date of the FI(H) certificate. (b) Renewal (1) Aeroplanes If the TRI (A) certificate has lapsed, applicants shall have completed within the 12 months immediately preceding the application: (i) at least 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings on the applicable aeroplane type, of which not more than 15 sectors may be completed in a flight simulator; (ii) instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO which should cover the relevant elements of the TRI training course; and (iii) at least 3 hours of flight instruction in the applicable type of aeroplane under the supervision of a TRI(A) during type rating or recurrent training. (2) Helicopters and powered-lift If the TRI (H) or TRI(PL) certificate has lapsed, applicants shall have, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application: (i) completed at least 30 route sectors, including take-offs and landings on the applicable aircraft type, of which not more than 15 sectors may be completed in a flight simulator; (ii) received instructor refresher training as a TRI at an ATO, which should cover the relevant elements of the TRI training course; 73 of 262  (iii) conducted at least 3 hours of flight instruction in the applicable type of helicopter under the supervision of a TRI(H) or a TRI(PL) as relevant during type rating or recurrent training; and (iv) passed the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 in each of the types of aircraft in which renewal of the instructional privileges is sought. SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the class rating instructor — CRI FCL.905.CRI Privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of CRIs are to instruct for: (1) the issue, revalidation or renewal of a class or type rating for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when the privileges sought by applicants are to fly in single-pilot operations; (2) a towing or aerobatic rating for the aeroplane category, provided they hold the relevant rating and have demonstrated the ability to instruct for that rating to an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i); and (3) the extension of the LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane. (b) The privileges of CRIs are restricted to the class or type of aeroplane in which the instructor assessment of competence was conducted. The privileges of CRIs shall be extended to further classes or types when they have completed, within the last 12 months: (1) 15 hours of flight time as PIC in aeroplanes of the applicable class or type of aeroplane; and (2) one training flight from the right-hand seat under the supervision of another CRI or FI, qualified for that class or type, occupying the other pilot’s seat. (c) The privileges of CRIs are to instruct for class and type ratings for single-pilot single-engine aeroplanes, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, in multi-pilot operations, provided that CRIs: (1) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes or have at least 500 hours as pilots in multi-pilot operations on aeroplanes; and (2) have completed the training course for an MCCI in accordance with FCL.930.MCCI. (d) Applicants for a CRI for multi-engine aeroplanes holding a CRI certificate for single-engine aeroplanes shall have fulfilled the prerequisites for a CRI established in FCL.915.CRI(a) and the requirements in FCL.930.CRI(a)(3) and FCL.935. FCL.915.CRI Prerequisites Applicants for the issue of a CRI certificate shall have completed at least: (a) for multi-engine aeroplanes: (1) 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes; and 74 of 262  (2) 30 hours as PIC in the applicable class or type of aeroplane; and (b) for single-engine aeroplanes: (1) 300 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes; and (2) 30 hours as PIC in the applicable class or type of aeroplane. FCL.930.CRI Training course (a) The training course for the CRI shall include, at least: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; (2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills; and (3) 5 hours of flight instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes or 3 hours of flight instruction in single- engine aeroplanes, given by an FI(A) qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i). (b) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(1). FCL.940.CRI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation For the revalidation of a CRI certificate, applicants shall, within the validity period of the CRI certificate, fulfil two of the following three requirements: (1) Conduct at least 10 hours of flight instruction in the role of a CRI. If applicants have CRI privileges on both single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes, the 10 hours of flight instruction shall be equally divided between single-engine and multi-engine aeroplanes; (2) Receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO; (3) Pass the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935 for multi-engine or single-engine aeroplanes, as relevant. (b) For at least each alternate revalidation of a CRI certificate, holders shall have to comply with the requirement in point (a)(3). (c) Renewal If the CRI certificate has lapsed, applicants shall, within a period of 1 year before renewal: (1) receive refresher training as a CRI at an ATO; and (2) pass the assessment of competence established in FCL.935. 75 of 262 SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the instrument rating instructor — IRI FCL.905.IRI Privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of IRIs are to instruct for the issue, revalidation and renewal of an EIR or an IR in the appropriate aircraft category. (b) To instruct for the basic phase of training on an MPL course, IRIs(A) shall: (1) hold an IR for multi-engine aeroplanes; and (2) have completed at least 1 500 hours of flight time in multi-crew operations. In the case of IRIs already qualified to instruct on ATP(A) or CPL(A)/IR integrated courses, the requirement in point (b)(2) may be replaced by the completion of the course provided for in point FCL.905.FI(k)(3). FCL.915.IRI Prerequisites (a) Applicants for the issue of an IRI(A) certificate shall: (1) have completed at least 800 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 400 hours shall be in aeroplanes; and (2) in the case of an IRI(A) certificate for multi-engine aeroplanes, meet the requirements in points FCL.915.CRI(a), FCL.930.CRI and FCL.935. (b) Applicants for the issue of an IRI(H) certificate shall: (1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 250 hours shall be instrument flight time in helicopters; and (2) in the case of an IR(H) certificate for multi-pilot helicopters, meet the requirements in FCL.905.FI(g)(3)(ii). (c) Applicants for the issue of an IRI(As) certificate shall have completed at least 300 hours of flight time under IFR, of which at least 100 hours shall be instrument flight time in airships. FCL.930.IRI Training course (a) The IRI training course shall include, at least: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; and (2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of instrument theoretical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom instructional skills. (b) The IRI(A) training course shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an aeroplane, FFS, FTD 2/3 or FPNT II. In the case of applicants holding an FI(A) certificate, these hours are reduced to 5. 76 of 262 (c) The IRI(H) training course shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in a helicopter, an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II/III;. In the case of applicants holding an FI(H) certificate, these hours are reduced to 5. (d) The IRI(As) training course shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), include at least 10 hours of flight instruction in an airship, an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II. (e) Flight instruction shall be given by an FI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FI(i). (f) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(1). FCL.940.IRI Revalidation and renewal For the revalidation and renewal of an IRI certificate, holders shall meet the requirements for the revalidation and renewal of an FI certificate, in accordance with FCL.940.FI. SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the synthetic flight instructor — SFI FCL.905.SFI Privileges and conditions The privileges of SFIs are to carry out synthetic flight instruction, within the relevant aircraft category, for: (a) the revalidation and renewal of an IR, provided that they hold or have held an IR in the relevant aircraft category; and (b) the issue of an IR, provided that they hold or have held an IR in the relevant aircraft category and have completed an IRI training course. (c) The privileges of SFIs for single-pilot aeroplanes are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when applicants seek privileges to operate in single-pilot operations. The privileges of SFIs(SPA) may be extended to flight instruction for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes type ratings in multi-pilot operations, provided that they: (i) hold an MCCI certificate; or (ii) hold or have held a TRI certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (2) MCC and the MPL training courses on the basic phase, provided that the privileges of SFIs(SPA) have been extended to multi-pilot operations in accordance with point (1). (d) The privileges of SFIs for multi-pilot aeroplanes are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings for: (i) multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (ii) single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes when applicants seek privileges to operate in multi-pilot operations; (2) MCC training course; and 77 of 262  (3) the MPL course on the basic, intermediate and advanced phases, provided that, for the basic phase, they hold or have held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate. (e) The privileges of SFIs for helicopters are to carry out synthetic flight instruction for: (1) the issue, revalidation and renewal of helicopter type ratings; and (2) MCC training, when SFIs have privileges to instruct for multi-pilot helicopters. FCL.910.SFI Restricted privileges The privileges of SFIs shall be restricted to the FTD 2/3 or FFS of the aircraft type in which the SFI training course was taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of the same category of aircraft when holders have satisfactorily completed: (a) the simulator content of the relevant type rating course; (b) the relevant parts of the technical training and flight instruction parts of the applicable TRI course; and (c) conducted on a complete type rating course at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of an SFI on the applicable type under the supervision and to the satisfaction of a TRE or an SFE qualified for this purpose. FCL.915.SFI Prerequisites (a) Applicants for the issue of an SFI certificate shall: (1) hold or have held a CPL, an MPL or an ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category; (2) have passed the skill test for the issue or, if applicable, the proficiency check for the revalidation or renewal of the specific aircraft type rating in an FFS representing the applicable type, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application. (b) Applicants for the issue of an SFI(A) certificate for multi-pilot aeroplanes or of an SFI(PL) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), have: (1) at least 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift, as applicable; (2) completed, as pilots or as observers, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application, at least: (i) three route sectors on the flight deck of the applicable aircraft type; or (ii) two line-oriented flight training-based simulator sessions conducted by qualified flight crew on the flight deck of the applicable type. These simulator sessions shall include two flights of at least 2 hours each between two different aerodromes, and the associated preflight planning and debriefing. (c) Applicants for the issue of an SFI(A) certificate for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a): (1) have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes, of which at least 30 hours shall be as PIC in the applicable type; (2) hold or have held a multi-engine IR(A) rating; and 78 of 262  (3) have met the requirements in point (b)(2); (d) Applicants for the issue of an SFI(H) certificate shall, in addition to the requirements in point (a), have: (1) completed, as pilots or as observers, at least 1 hour of flight time on the flight deck of the applicable type, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application; and (2) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, at least 1 000 hours of flying experience as pilots of helicopters, including at least 350 hours as a pilot on multi-pilot helicopters; (3) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters, completed 500 hours as pilots of helicopters, including 100 hours as PIC in single-pilot multi-engine helicopters; and (4) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, completed 250 hours as pilots of helicopters. FCL.930.SFI Training course (a) The training course for SFIs shall include: (1) the FSTD content of the applicable type rating course; and (2) the FSTD content of the TRI training course. (b) Applicants for the issue of an SFI certificate who hold a TRI certificate for the relevant type shall be fully credited towards the requirements of this point. FCL.940.SFI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation For the revalidation of an SFI certificate, applicants shall, within the validity period of the SFI certificate, fulfil two of the following three requirements: (1) Complete 50 hours as instructors or examiners in FSTDs, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the SFI certificate. (2) Receive instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO. (3) Pass the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. (b) Additionally, applicants shall have completed, on an FFS, the proficiency checks for the issue of the specific aircraft type ratings representing the types for which privileges are held. (c) For at least each alternate revalidation of an SFI certificate, holders shall have to comply with the requirement in point (a)(3). (d) If SFIs hold a certificate in more than one type of aircraft within the same category and if recommended in the OSD, the assessment of competence taken on one of those types shall revalidate the SFI certificate for the other types held within the same category of aircraft. (e) Renewal If the SFI certificate has lapsed, applicants shall, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application: (1) receive instructor refresher training as an SFI at an ATO; and; (2) pass the relevant sections of the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.935. 79 of 262 SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the multi-crew cooperation instructor — MCCI FCL.905.MCCI Privileges and conditions The privileges of MCCIs are to carry out flight instruction during: (a) the practical part of MCC courses when not combined with type rating training; and (b) in the case of MCCIs(A), the basic phase of the MPL integrated training course, provided they hold or have held an FI(A) or an IRI(A) certificate. FCL.910.MCCI Restricted privileges The privileges of holders of an MCCI certificate shall be restricted to the FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS in which the MCCI training course was taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when holders have completed the practical training of the MCCI course on that type of FNPT II/III MCC, FTD 2/3 or FFS. FCL.915.MCCI Prerequisites Applicants for the issue of an MCCI certificate shall: (a) hold or have held a CPL, an MPL or an ATPL in the appropriate aircraft category; and (b) have at least: (1) in the case of aeroplanes, airships and powered-lift aircraft, 1 500 hours of flying experience as pilots in multi-pilot operations; and (2) in the case of helicopters, 1 000 hours of flying experience as pilots in multi-crew operations, of which at least 350 hours in multi-pilot helicopters. FCL.930.MCCI Training course (a) The training course for the MCCI shall include, at least: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; (2) technical training related to the type of FSTD where applicants wish to instruct; and (3) 3 hours of practical instruction, which may be flight instruction or MCC instruction in the relevant FSTD, under the supervision of a TRI, an SFI or an MCCI nominated by the ATO for that purpose. These hours of flight instruction under supervision shall include the assessment of the applicants’ competence as described in FCL.920. (b) Applicants holding or having held an FI, a TRI, a CRI, an IRI or an SFI certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(1). 80 of 262 FCL.940.MCCI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation For the revalidation of an MCCI certificate, applicants shall have completed the requirements in FCL.930.MCCI(a)(3) on the relevant type of FSTD, within the last 12 months of the validity period of the MCCI certificate. (b) Renewal If the MCCI certificate has lapsed, applicants shall complete the requirements in FCL.930.MCCI(a)(2) and (3) on the relevant type of FSTD. SECTION 8 Specific requirements for the synthetic training instructor — STI FCL.905.STI Privileges (a) The privileges of STIs are to carry out synthetic flight instruction in the appropriate aircraft category for: (1) the issue of a licence; and (2) the issue, revalidation or renewal of an IR and a class or type rating for single-pilot aircraft, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes. (b) Additional privileges for STIs(A) The privileges of STIs(A) shall include synthetic flight instruction during the core flying skills training of the MPL integrated training course. FCL.910.STI Restricted privileges The privileges of STIs shall be restricted to the FSTD in which the STI training course was taken. The privileges may be extended to other FSTDs representing further types of aircraft when holders have within the year preceding the application: (a) completed the FSTD content of the TRI course on the applicable type or class of aircraft; (b) passed in the FSTD on which flight instruction is to be conducted, the applicable section of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) for the appropriate class or type of aircraft. For STIs(A) instructing on BITD only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for the skill test for the issue of a PPL(A); and (c) conducted, on a CPL, an IR, a PPL or a class or type rating course, at least 3 hours of flight instruction under the supervision of an FI, a CRI(A), an IRI or a TRI nominated by the ATO for this purpose. At least 1 hour of flight instruction shall be supervised by an FIE in the appropriate aircraft category. 81 of 262 FCL.915.STI Prerequisites (a) Applicants for the issue of an STI certificate shall: (1) hold, or have held within the 3 years prior to the application, a pilot licence and instructional privileges appropriate to the courses on which instruction is intended; and (2) have passed in an FSTD the relevant proficiency check for the class or type rating, within a period of 1 year preceding the application. Applicants for the issue of an STI(A) wishing to instruct on BITDs only, shall complete only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A). (b) Additionally to the prerequisites in point (a), applicants for the issue of an STI(H) certificate shall have completed at least 1 hour of flight time as an observer on the flight deck of the applicable type of helicopter, within the 12 months immediately preceding the application. FCL.930.STI Training course (a) The training course for STIs shall comprise at least 3 hours of flight instruction related to the duties of an STI in an FSTD, under the supervision of an FIE. These hours of flight instruction under supervision shall include the assessment of the applicants’ competence as described in FCL.920. Applicants for an STI(A) wishing to instruct on a BITD only, shall complete the flight instruction in a BITD. (b) For applicants for an STI(H) certificate, the course shall also include the FFS content of the applicable TRI course. FCL.940.STI Revalidation and renewal of the STI certificate (a) Revalidation For the revalidation of an STI certificate, applicants shall have, within the last 12 months of the validity period of the STI certificate: (1) conducted at least 3 hours of flight instruction in an FSTD, as part of a complete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type rating course; and (2) passed in the FFS, the FTD 2/3 or the FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is conducted, the applicable sections of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) for the appropriate class or type of aircraft. For STIs(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A). (b) Renewal If the STI certificate has lapsed, applicants shall: (1) receive refresher training as an STI at an ATO; and (2) pass in the FFS, the FTD 2/3 or the FNPT II/III on which flight instruction is routinely conducted, the applicable sections of the proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to this Annex (Part-FCL) for the appropriate class or type of aircraft. 82 of 262  For an STI(A) instructing on BITDs only, the proficiency check shall include only the exercises appropriate for a skill test for the issue of a PPL(A); and (3) conduct on a complete CPL, IR, PPL or class or type rating course, at least 3 hours of flight instruction under the supervision of an FI, a CRI(A), an IRI or a TRI(H) nominated by the ATO for this purpose. At least 1 hour of flight instruction shall be supervised by a flight instructor examiner for aeroplanes (FIE(A)). SECTION 9 Mountain rating instructor — MI FCL.905.MI Privileges and conditions The privileges of MIs are to carry out flight instruction for the issue of a mountain rating. FCL.915.MI Prerequisites Applicants for the issue of an MI certificate shall hold: (a) an FI, a CRI or a TRI certificate, with privileges for single-pilot aeroplanes; and (b) a mountain rating. FCL.930.MI Training course (a) The training course for MIs shall include the assessment of the applicants’ competence as described in FCL.920. (b) Before attending the course, applicants shall have passed a pre-entry flight test with an MI holding an FI certificate to assess their experience and ability to undertake the training course. FCL.940.MI Validity of the MI certificate The MI certificate is valid as long as the FI, TRI or CRI certificate is valid. SECTION 10 Specific requirements for the flight test instructor — FTI FCL.905.FTI Privileges and conditions (a) The privileges of FTIs are to instruct, within the appropriate aircraft category, for the issue of: (1) category 1 or 2 flight test ratings, provided they hold the relevant category of flight test rating; and (2) an FTI certificate, within the relevant category of flight test rating, provided that they have at least 2 years of experience instructing for the issue of flight test ratings. (b) The privileges of FTIs holding a category 1 flight test rating include the provision of flight instruction also for category 2 flight test ratings. 83 of 262 FCL.915.FTI Prerequisites Applicants for the issue of an FTI certificate shall: (a) hold a flight test rating issued in accordance with FCL.820; and (b) have completed at least 200 hours of category 1 or 2 flight tests. FCL.930.FTI Training course (a) The training course for the FTI shall include, at least: (1) 25 hours of teaching and learning instruction; (2) 10 hours of technical training, including revision of technical knowledge, the preparation of lesson plans and the development of classroom/simulator instructional skills; and (3) 5 hours of practical flight instruction under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b). These hours of flight instruction shall include the assessment of the applicants’ competence as described in FCL.920. (b) Crediting (1) Applicants holding or having held an instructor certificate shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(1). (2) In addition, applicants holding or having held an FI or TRI certificate in the relevant aircraft category shall be fully credited towards the requirement in point (a)(2). FCL.940.FTI Revalidation and renewal (a) Revalidation For the revalidation of an FTI certificate, applicants shall, within the validity period of the FTI certificate, fulfil one of the following requirements: (1) complete at least: (i) 50 hours of flight tests, of which at least 15 hours shall be within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; and (ii) 5 hours of flight test flight instruction within the 12 months immediately preceding the expiry date of the FTI certificate; or (2) receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall be based on the practical flight instruction element of the FTI training course, in accordance with FCL.930.FTI(a)(3), and include at least one training flight under the supervision of an FTI qualified in accordance with FCL.905.FTI(b). (b) Renewal If the FTI certificate has lapsed, applicants shall receive refresher training as an FTI at an ATO. The refresher training shall comply at least with the requirements in FCL.930.FTI(a)(3). 84 of 262  SUBPART K EXAMINERS SECTION 1 Common requirements FCL.1000 Examiner certificates (a) General Holders of an examiner certificate shall: (1) hold, unless otherwise determined in this Annex (Part-FCL), an equivalent licence, rating or certificate to the ones for which they are authorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence and the privilege to instruct for them; and (2) be qualified to act as PIC in the aircraft during a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence when conducted on the aircraft. (b) Special conditions (1) The competent authority may issue a specific certificate granting privileges for the conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence when compliance with the requirements established in this Subpart is not possible in the case of the introduction of: (i) new aircraft in the Member States or in an operator’s fleet; or (ii) new training courses in this Annex (Part-FCL). Such a certificate shall be limited to the skill tests and proficiency checks necessary for the introduction of the new type of aircraft or the new training course and its validity shall not, in any case, exceed 1 year. (2) Holders of a certificate issued in accordance with point (b)(1) who wish to apply for an examiner certificate shall comply with the prerequisites and revalidation requirements for that category of examiner. (c) Examination outside the territory of the Member States (1) Notwithstanding point (a), in the case of skill tests and proficiency checks provided at an ATO located outside the territory of the Member States, a competent authority shall issue an examiner certificate to applicants holding a pilot licence, a rating or a certificate issued by a third country in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, provided that applicants: (i) hold at least an equivalent licence, rating or certificate to the one for which they are authorised to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence, and in any case at least a CPL; (ii) comply with the requirements established in this Subpart for the issue of the relevant examiner certificate; and 85 of 262  (iii) demonstrate to the competent authority an adequate level of knowledge of European aviation safety rules to be able to exercise examiner privileges in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL). (2) The certificate referred to in point (1) shall be limited to performing skill tests and proficiency tests/checks: (i) outside the territory of the Member States; and (ii) to pilots who have sufficient knowledge of the language in which the test/check is given. FCL.1005 Limitation of privileges in case of vested interests Examiners shall not conduct: (a) skill tests or assessments of competence of applicants for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate to whom they have provided more than 25 % of the required flight instruction for the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test or assessment of competence is being taken; and (b) skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence whenever they feel that their objectivity may be affected. FCL.1010 Prerequisites for examiners Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate: (a) relevant knowledge, background and appropriate experience related to the privileges of an examiner; and (b) that they have not been subject to any sanctions that lead to the suspension, limitation or revocation of any of their licences, ratings or certificates issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL), for non- compliance with the Basic Regulation and its implementing rules during the last 3 years. FCL.1015 Examiner standardisation (a) Applicants for an examiner certificate shall complete a standardisation course provided by the competent authority or by an ATO and approved by the competent authority. (b) The standardisation course shall consist of theoretical and practical instruction and shall include, at least: (1) the conduct of two skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competences for the licences, ratings or certificates for which applicants seek the privilege to conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence; (2) instruction in the applicable requirements in this Annex (Part-FCL) and the applicable air operations requirements, the conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, and their documentation and reporting; (3) a briefing on the content of and the need to apply: (i) national administrative procedures; (ii) requirements for protection of personal data; 86 of 262  (iii) examiner’s liability; (iv) examiner’s accident insurance; (v) national fees; and (vi) information on how to access the information contained in points (i)–(v) when conducting skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence of an applicant for which the competent authority is not the same that issued the examine certificate (c) Holders of an examiner certificate shall not conduct skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence of applicants for whom the competent authority is not the same as the one that issued the examiner certificate, unless they have reviewed the latest available information containing the relevant national procedures of the applicants' competent authority. FCL.1020 Examiners assessment of competence Applicants for an examiner certificate shall demonstrate their competence to an inspector from the competent authority or a senior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority responsible for the examiner certificate through the conduct of a skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence in the examiner role for which privileges are sought, including briefing, conduct of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence, and assessment of the person to whom the test, check or assessment is given, debriefing and recording documentation. FCL.1025 Validity, revalidation and renewal of examiner certificates (a) Validity An examiner certificate shall be valid for 3 years. (b) Revalidation An examiner certificate shall be revalidated when: (1) holders have, during the validity period of the certificate, conducted at least two skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence every year; (2) holders have, during the validity period of the certificate, attended an examiner refresher course provided by the competent authority or by an ATO and approved by the competent authority, during the last year of the validity period; and (3) one of the skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence conducted during the last year of the validity period in accordance with point (1) was assessed by an inspector from the competent authority or by a senior examiner specifically authorised to do so by the competent authority responsible for the examiner certificate or comply with the requirements in FCL.1020. When applicants for the revalidation hold privileges for more than one category of examiner, combined revalidation of all examiner privileges may be achieved when applicants comply with the requirements in points (b)(1) and (2) and in FCL.1020 for one of the categories of examiner certificate held, in agreement with the competent authority. 87 of 262 (c) Renewal If the certificate has expired, applicants shall comply with the requirements in point (b)(2) and FCL.1020 before they can resume the exercise of the privileges. (d) An examiner certificate shall only be revalidated or renewed if applicants demonstrate continued compliance with the requirements in FCL.1010 and FCL.1030. FCL.1030 Conduct of skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence (a) When conducting skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence, examiners shall: (1) ensure that communication with applicants can be established without language barriers; (2) verify that applicants comply with all the qualification, training and experience requirements in this Annex (Part-FCL) for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence, rating or certificate for which the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence is taken; and (3) make applicants aware of the consequences of providing incomplete, inaccurate or false information related to their training and flight experience. (b) After completion of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence, examiners shall: (1) inform applicants of the result of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence. In the event of a partial pass or fail, examiners shall inform applicants that they may not exercise the privileges of the rating until a full pass has been achieved. Examiners shall detail any further training requirement and explain the applicants’ right of appeal; (2) in the event of a pass in a proficiency check or assessment of competence for the revalidation or renewal, endorse the applicants’ licence or certificate with the new expiry date of the rating or certificate, if specifically authorised for that purpose by the competent authority responsible for the applicants’ licence; and (3) provide applicants with a signed report of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence and submit without delay copies of the report to the competent authority responsible for the applicants’ licence, and to the competent authority that issued the examiner certificate. The report shall include: (i) a declaration that examiners have received information from applicants regarding their experience and instruction, and found that experience and instruction complying with the applicable requirements in this Annex (Part-FCL); (ii) confirmation that all the required manoeuvres and exercises have been completed, as well as information on the verbal theoretical knowledge examination, when applicable. If an item has been failed, examiners shall record the reasons for this assessment; (iii) the result of the skill test, proficiency check or assessment of competence; (iv) a declaration that examiners have reviewed and applied the national procedures and requirements of the applicants’ competent authority if the competent authority responsible for the applicants’ licence is not the same as the one that issued the examiner certificate; and 88 of 262  (v) a copy of the examiner certificate containing the scope of their privileges as examiners in the case of skill tests, proficiency checks or assessments of competence of applicants for whom the competent authority is not the same as the one that issued the examiner certificate. (c) Examiners shall maintain records for 5 years with details of all skill tests, proficiency checks and assessments of competence performed and their results. (d) Upon request by the competent authority responsible for the examiner certificate, or the competent authority responsible for the applicants’ licence, examiners shall submit all records and reports, and any other information, as required for oversight activities. SECTION 2 Specific requirements for the flight examiner — FE FCL.1005.FE Privileges and conditions (a) Flight examiners for aeroplanes (FEs(A)) The privileges of FEs(A) are to conduct: (1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for associated single- pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, provided that they have completed at least 1 000 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction; (2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(A) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associated single-pilot class and type ratings, except for single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, provided that they have completed at least 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction; (3) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(A), provided that they have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 100 hours of flight instruction; (4) skill tests for the issue of a mountain rating, provided that they have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs, including at least 500 take-offs and landings of flight instruction for the mountain rating; and (5) proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that they have completed at least 1 500 hours as pilots of aeroplanes and comply with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2). (b) Flight examiners for helicopters (FEs(H)) The privileges of FEs(H) are to conduct: (1) skill tests for the issue of the PPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot single- engine helicopter type ratings entered in a PPL(H), provided that they have completed 1 000 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction; 89 of 262  (2) skill tests for the issue of the CPL(H) and skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot single- engine helicopter type ratings entered in a CPL(H), provided that they have completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters, including at least 250 hours of flight instruction; (3) skill tests and proficiency checks for single-pilot multi-engine helicopter type ratings entered in a PPL(H) or a CPL(H), provided that they have completed the requirements in points (1) or (2), as applicable, and hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H) and, when applicable, an IR(H); and (4) skill tests and proficiency checks for the LAPL(H), provided that they have completed at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters, including at least 150 hours of flight instruction. (c) Flight examiners for airships (FEs(As)) The privileges of FEs(As) are to conduct skill tests for the issue of the PPL(As) and CPL(As) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the associated airship type ratings, provided that they have completed 500 hours of flight time as pilots of airships, including 100 hours of flight instruction. (d) Flight examiners for sailplanes (FEs(S)) The privileges of FEs(S) are to conduct: (1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the SPL and the LAPL(S), provided that they have completed 300 hours of flight time as pilots of sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 150 hours or 300 launches of flight instruction; (2) proficiency checks for the extension of the SPL privileges to commercial operations, provided that they have completed 300 hours of flight time as pilots of sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 90 hours of flight instruction; (3) skill tests for the extension of the SPL or LAPL(S) privileges to TMG, provided that they have completed 300 hours of flight time as pilots of sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including 50 hours of flight instruction in TMG; and (4) skill tests and proficiency checks for the cloud flying rating, provided that they have completed at least 200 hours of flight time as pilots of sailplanes or powered sailplanes, including at least 5 hours or 25 flights of flight instruction for the cloud flying rating or at least 10 hours of flight instruction for the EIR or IR(A). (e) Flight examiners for balloons (FEs(B)) The privileges of FEs(B) are to conduct: (1) skill tests for the issue of the BPL and the LAPL(B) and skill tests and proficiency checks for the extension of the privileges to another balloon class or group, provided that they have completed 250 hours of flight time as pilots of balloons, including 50 hours of flight instruction; and (2) proficiency checks for the extension of the BPL privileges to commercial operations, provided that they have completed 300 hours of flight time as pilots of balloons, of which 50 hours in the same group of balloons for which the extension is sought. The 300 hours of flight time shall include 50 hours of flight instruction. 90 of 262 FCL.1010.FE Prerequisites Applicants for the issue of an FE certificate shall hold an FI certificate in the appropriate aircraft category. SECTION 3 Specific requirements for the type rating examiners — TRE FCL.1005.TRE TRE — privileges and conditions (a) Type rating examiners for aeroplanes (TREs(A)) and type rating examiners for powered-lift aircraft (TREs(PL)) The privileges of TREs(A) and TREs(PL) are to conduct: (1) skill tests for the initial issue of type ratings for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable; (2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of type ratings, EIRs and IRs; (3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue; (4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that they has comply with the requirements in FCL.925; and (5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI or SFI certificate in the applicable aircraft category, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as a TRE and have undergone specific training for the assessment of competence in accordance with FCL.1015(b). (b) Type rating examiners for helicopters (TREs(H)) The privileges of TREs(H) are to conduct: (1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of helicopter type ratings; (2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs, or for the extension of the IR(H) from single-engine helicopters to multi-engine helicopters, provided they hold a valid IR(H); (3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue; and (4) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of a TRI(H) or SFI(H) certificate, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as a TRE. FCL.1010.TRE Prerequisites (a) TREs(A) and TREs(PL) Applicants for a TRE certificate for aeroplanes and powered-lift aircraft shall: (1) in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, have completed 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC; (2) in the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, have completed 500 hours of flight time as pilots of single-pilot aeroplanes, of which at least 200 hours shall be as PIC; (3) hold a CPL or an ATPL and a TRI certificate for the applicable type; and 91 of 262  (4) for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI or an SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type. (b) TREs(H) Applicants for a TRE(H) certificate shall: (1) hold a TRI(H) certificate or, in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters, a valid FI(H) certificate, for the applicable type; (2) for the initial issue of a TRE certificate, have completed 50 hours of flight instruction as a TRI, an FI or an SFI in the applicable type or an FSTD representing that type; (3) in the case of multi-pilot helicopters, hold a CPL(H) or an ATPL(H) and have completed 1 500 hours of flight as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC; (4) in the case of single-pilot multi-engine helicopters: (i) have completed 1 000 hours of flight as pilots of helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC; and (ii) hold a CPL(H) or an ATPL(H) and, when applicable, a valid IR(H); and (5) in the case of single-pilot single-engine helicopters: (i) have completed 750 hours of flight as pilots of helicopters, of which at least 500 hours shall be as PIC; and (ii) hold a CPL(H) or ATPL(H). Before the privileges of a TRE(H) are extended from single-pilot multi-engine to multi-pilot multi-engine privileges on the same type of helicopter, holders shall have at least 100 hours in multi-pilot operations on this type. In the case of applicants for the first multi-pilot multi-engine TRE certificate, the 1 500 hours of flight experience on multi-pilot helicopters required in point (b)(3) may be considered to have been met if they have completed the 500 hours of flight time as PIC in a multi-pilot helicopter of the same type. SECTION 4 Specific requirements for the class rating examiner — CRE FCL.1005.CRE Privileges The privileges of class rating examiners (CREs) are to conduct, for single-pilot aeroplanes, except for single- pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes: (a) skill tests for the issue of class and type ratings; (b) proficiency checks for: (1) revalidation or renewal of class and type ratings; (2) revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that they comply with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a); and 92 of 262  (3) revalidation and renewal of EIRs, provided that they have completed at least 1 500 hours as pilots of aeroplanes and comply with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(a)(2); and (c) skill tests for the extension of LAPL(A) privileges to another class or variant of aeroplane. FCL.1010.CRE Prerequisites Applicants for a CRE certificate shall: (a) hold a CPL(A), an MPL(A) or an ATPL(A) with single-pilot privileges or have held it and hold a PPL(A); (b) hold a CRI certificate or an FI certificate with the privilege to provide class or type rating instruction for the applicable class or type; and (c) have completed 500 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes. SECTION 5 Specific requirements for the instrument rating examiner — IRE FCL.1005.IRE Privileges The privileges of holders of an instrument rating examiner (IRE) certificate are to conduct skill tests for the issue and proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of EIRs or IRs. FCL.1010.IRE Prerequisites (a) IRE for aeroplanes (IRE(A)) Applicants for an IRE certificate for aeroplanes shall hold an IRI(A) or an FI(A) certificate with the privilege to instruct for the IR(A) and shall have completed: (1) 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes; and (2) 450 hours of flight time under IFR, of which 250 hours shall be as an instructor. (b) IRE for helicopters (IRE(H)) Applicants for an IRE certificate for helicopters shall hold an IRI(H) or an FI(H) certificate with the privilege to instruct for the IR(H) and shall have completed: (1) 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters; and (2) 300 hours of instrument flight time in helicopters, of which 200 hours shall be as an instructor. (c) IRE for airships (IR(As)) Applicants for an IRE certificate for airships shall hold an IRI(As) or an FI(As) certificate with the privilege to instruct for the IR(As) and shall have completed: (1) 500 hours of flight time as pilots of airships; and (2) 100 hours of instrument flight time on airships, of which 50 hours shall be as an instructor. 93 of 262 SECTION 6 Specific requirements for the synthetic flight examiner — SFE FCL.1005.SFE Privileges and conditions (a) SFE for aeroplanes (SFE(A)) and SFE for powered-lift aircraft (SFE(PL)) The privileges of SFEs for aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft are to conduct in an FFS or for the assessments in point (5) on the applicable FSTD: (1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation or renewal of type ratings for multi- pilot aeroplanes or powered-lift aircraft, as applicable; (2) proficiency checks for the revalidation or renewal of IRs when combined with the revalidation or renewal of a type rating, provided that they have passed a proficiency check for the aircraft type including the instrument rating within the last year; (3) skill tests for ATPL(A) issue; (4) skill tests for MPL issue, provided that they have complied with the requirements in FCL.925; and (5) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI certificate in the relevant aircraft category, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as an SFE(A). (b) SFE for helicopters (SFE(H)) The privileges of SFEs(H) are to conduct in an FFS or for the assessments in point (4) on the applicable FSTD: (1) skill tests and proficiency checks for the issue, revalidation and renewal of type ratings; (2) proficiency checks for the revalidation and renewal of IRs, provided that they comply with the requirements in FCL.1010.IRE(b); (3) skill tests for ATPL(H) issue; and (4) assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of an SFI(H) certificate, provided that they have completed at least 3 years as an SFE(H). FCL.1010.SFE Prerequisites (a) SFE(A) Applicants for an SFE(A) certificate shall: (1) in the case of multi-pilot aeroplanes: (i) hold or have held an ATPL(A) and a type rating for the applicable type of aeroplane; (ii) an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable type of aeroplane; and (2iii) have at least 1 500 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot aeroplanes; (2) in the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes: (i) hold of have held a CPL(A) or an ATPL(A) and a type rating for the applicable class or type of aeroplane; 94 of 262  (ii) hold an SFI(A) certificate for the applicable class or type of aeroplane; and (iii) have at least 500 hours of flight time as pilots of single-pilot aeroplanes; and (3) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flight instruction as an SFI(A) on the applicable type. (b) SFE(H) Applicants for an SFE(H) certificate shall: (1) hold or have held an ATPL(H), and a type rating for the applicable type of helicopter; (2) hold an SFI(H) certificate for the applicable type of helicopter; (3) have at least 1 000 hours of flight time as pilots of multi-pilot helicopters; and (4) for the initial issue of an SFE certificate, have completed at least 50 hours of synthetic flight instruction as an SFI(H) on the applicable type. SECTION 7 Specific requirements for the flight instructor examiner — FIE FCL.1005.FIE Privileges and conditions (a) FIE(A) The privileges of FIEs(A) are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(A), CRI(A), IRI(A), STI(A) and TRI(A) on single-pilot aeroplanes. (b) Flight instructor examiner for helicopters (FIE(H)) The privileges of FIEs(H) are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of certificates for FI(H), IRI(H), STI(H) and TRI(H) on single-pilot helicopters. (c) Flight instructor examiner for airships (FIE(As)), for sailplanes or powered sailplanes (FIE(S)) and for balloons (FIE(B)) The privileges of FIEs(As), FIEs(S) and FIEs(B) are to conduct assessments of competence for the issue, revalidation or renewal of instructor certificates in the applicable aircraft category. FCL.1010.FIE Prerequisites (a) FIE(A) Applicants for an FIE(A) certificate shall in case they wish to conduct assessments of competence: (1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable; (2) have completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of aeroplanes or TMGs; and (3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate. (b) FIE(H) Applicants for an FIE(H) certificate shall: (1) hold the relevant instructor certificate, as applicable; 95 of 262  (2) have completed 2 000 hours of flight time as pilots of helicopters; and (3) have at least 100 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an instructor certificate. (c) FIE(As) Applicants for an FIE(As) certificate shall: (1) hold an FI(As) certificate; (2) have completed 500 hours of flight time as pilots of airships; and (3) have at least 20 hours of flight time instructing applicants for an FI(As) certificate. (d) FIE(S) Applicants for an FIE(S) certificate shall: (1) hold an FI(S) certificate; (2) have completed 500 hours of flight time as pilots of sailplanes or powered sailplanes; and (3) have completed: (i) in case they wish to conduct assessments of competence in TMGs, 10 hours or 30 take-offs instructing applicants for an instructor certificate in TMGs; (ii) in all other cases, 10 hours or 30 launches instructing applicants for an instructor certificate. (e) FIE(B) Applicants for an FIE(B) certificate shall: (1) hold an FI(B) certificate; (2) have completed 350 hours of flight time as pilots of balloons; and (3) have completed 10 hours instructing applicants for an instructor certificate. SECTION 8 Specific requirements for the senior examiner — SE FCL.1035.SE Privileges and conditions (a) Senior examiners (SEs) specifically authorised by the competent authority to observe skill tests or proficiency checks for the revalidation of examiner certificates shall: (1) prove an examiner experience level in accordance with the procedures established by the competent authority; (2) have conducted a number of skill tests or proficiency checks as an examiner qualified in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL); (3) have successfully completed an SE course at the competent authority; and (4) demonstrate their competence to the competent authority through an assessment of competence. 96 of 262 (b) The validity of the authorisation shall not exceed the validity of the examiner certificate, and in any case shall not exceed 3 years. The authorisation may be revalidated in accordance with the procedures established by the competent authority. 97 of 262  Appendix 1 Crediting of theoretical knowledge CREDITING OF THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE IN THE SAME OR ANOTHER CATEGORY OF AIRCRAFT — BRIDGE INSTRUCTION AND EXAMINATION REQUIREMENTS 1. LAPL, PPL, BPL and SPL 1.1. For the issue of an LAPL, holders of an LAPL in another category of aircraft shall be fully credited with theoretical knowledge on the common subjects established in FCL.120(a). 1.2. Without prejudice to paragraph 1.1., for the issue of an LAPL, a PPL, a BPL or an SPL, holders of a licence in another category of aircraft shall receive theoretical knowledge instruction and pass theoretical knowledge examinations to the appropriate level in the following subjects: — principles of flight; — operational procedures; — flight performance and planning; — aircraft general knowledge; and — navigation. 1.3. For the issue of a PPL, a BPL or an SPL, holders of an LAPL in the same category of aircraft shall be credited in full towards the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination requirements. 1.4. Notwithstanding point 1.2, for the issue of an LAPL(A), holders of an LAPL(S) with TMG extension shall demonstrate an adequate level of theoretical knowledge for the SEP(land) class in accordance with FCL.135.A(a)(2). 2. CPL 2.1. Applicants for the issue of a CPL holding a CPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course according to the differences identified between the CPL syllabi for different aircraft categories. 2.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex (Part-FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category: 021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and emergency equipment; 022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation; 032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable; 070 — Operational procedures; and 080 — Principles of flight. 2.3. Applicants for the issue of a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for an IR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in human performance and meteorology unless they have completed the IR training course in accordance with Appendix 6, Section Aa, to this Annex (Part-FCL). 98 of 262 2.4. Applicants for a CPL having passed the relevant theoretical knowledge examinations for an IR or EIR in the same category of aircraft are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the communications subject. 3. ATPL 3.1. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL holding an ATPL in another category of aircraft shall have received theoretical knowledge bridge instruction at an ATO on an approved course according to the differences identified between the ATPL syllabi for different aircraft categories. 3.2. Applicants shall pass theoretical knowledge examinations as defined in this Annex (Part-FCL) for the following subjects in the appropriate aircraft category: 021 — Aircraft general knowledge: airframe and systems, electrics, power plant and emergency equipment; 022 — Aircraft general knowledge: instrumentation; 032/034 — Performance aeroplanes or helicopters, as applicable; 070 — Operational procedures; and 080 — Principles of flight 3.3. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for a CPL(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject ‘communications’. 3.4. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects: — air law; — principles of flight (helicopter); and — communications. 3.5. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(A) having passed the relevant theoretical examination for an IR(A) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the subject ‘communications’. 3.6. Applicants for the issue of an ATPL(H) with an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL(H) are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects: — principles of flight (helicopter); and — communications. 4. IR 4.1. Applicants for the issue of an IR or an EIR having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for a CPL in the same aircraft category are credited towards the theoretical knowledge requirements in the following subjects: — human performance; and — meteorology. — Communications 99 of 262 4.2. Applicants for the issue of an IR(H) having passed the relevant theoretical examinations for an ATPL(H) VFR are required to pass the following examination subjects: — air law; — flight planning and flight monitoring; and — radio navigation. 100 of 262  Appendix 2 Language proficiency rating scale — expert, extended and operational level LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS Expert Pronunciation, stress, Both basic and Vocabulary range Able to speak at Comprehension is Interacts with ease rhythm and intonation, complex and accuracy are length with a consistently accurate in in nearly all (Level 6) though possibly grammatical sufficient to natural, nearly all contexts and situations. Is influenced by the first structures and communicate effortless flow. includes sensitive to verbal language or regional sentence effectively on a Varies speech comprehension of and non-verbal variation, almost never patterns are wide variety of flow for stylistic linguistic and cultural cues, and responds interfere with ease of consistently familiar and effect, e.g. to subtleties. to them understanding. well controlled. unfamiliar topics. emphasise a appropriately. Vocabulary is point. idiomatic, nuanced Uses appropriate and sensitive to discourse register. markers and connectors spontaneously. Extended Pronunciation, stress, Basic Vocabulary range Able to speak at Comprehension is Responses are rhythm and intonation, grammatical and accuracy are length with accurate on common, immediate, (Level 5) though influenced by structures and sufficient to relative ease on concrete and work- appropriate and the first language or sentence communicate familiar topics, related topics, and informative. regional variation, patterns are effectively on but may not vary mostly accurate when Manages the rarely interfere with consistently common, concrete speech flow as a the speaker is speaker/listener ease of understanding. well controlled. and work-related stylistic device. confronted with a relationship Complex topics. Can make use of linguistic or situational effectively. structures are Paraphrases appropriate complication or an attempted but consistently and discourse unexpected turn of with errors successfully. markers or events. which Vocabulary is connectors. Is able to comprehend a sometimes sometimes range of speech interfere with idiomatic. varieties (dialect and/or meaning. accent) or registers. 101 of 262 LEVEL PRONUNCIATION STRUCTURE VOCABULARY FLUENCY COMPREHENSION INTERACTIONS Operational Pronunciation, stress, Basic Vocabulary range Produces Comprehension is Responses are rhythm and intonation grammatical and accuracy are stretches of mostly accurate on usually immediate, (Level 4) are influenced by the structures and usually sufficient language at an common, concrete and appropriate and first language or sentence to communicate appropriate work-related topics informative. regional variation but patterns are effectively on tempo. when the accent or Initiates and only sometimes used creatively common, concrete variety used is There may be maintains interfere with ease of and are usually and work-related sufficiently intelligible occasional loss of exchanges even understanding. well controlled. topics. for an international fluency on when dealing with Errors may community of users. Can often transition from an unexpected turn occur, paraphrase rehearsed or When the speaker is of events. Deals particularly in successfully when formulaic speech confronted with a adequately with unusual or lacking vocabulary to spontaneous linguistic or situational apparent unexpected particularly in interaction, but complication or an misunderstandings circumstances, unusual or this does not unexpected turn of by checking, but rarely unexpected prevent effective events, comprehension confirming or interfere with circumstances. communication. may be slower or clarifying. meaning. Can make require clarification limited use of strategies. discourse markers and connectors. Fillers are not distracting. 102 of 262  Appendix 3 Training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL 1. This Appendix describes the requirements for the different types of training courses for the issue of a CPL and an ATPL, with and without an IR. 2. Applicants wishing to transfer to another ATO during a training course shall apply to the competent authority for a formal assessment of the further hours of training required. A. ATP integrated course — aeroplanes GENERAL 1. The aim of the ATP(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate as co-pilots of multi-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR. 2. Applicants wishing to undertake an ATP(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrants, 50 % of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours of flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual training flight time. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level; (b) visual and instrument flying training; (c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; and (d) UPRT in accordance with FCL.745.A unless applicants have already completed this training course before starting the ATP integrated course. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire ATP(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An ATP(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction. 7.1. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction and exercises. 7.2. The theoretical knowledge instruction in UPRT shall be conducted in accordance with FCL.745.A. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 8. Applicants shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of an ATPL(A). 103 of 262 FLYING TRAINING 9. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 55 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 55 hours may be instrument ground time; (b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time as SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours; (c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; and (d) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least: (1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation; (2) five solo take-offs; and (3) five solo full-stop landings; (e) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A; (f) 115 hours of instrument time comprising, at least: (1) 20 hours as SPIC; (2) 15 hours of MCC, for which an FFS or an FNPT II may be used; (3) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to: (i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or (ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, an FTD 2 or an FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I. Applicants holding a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and (g) 5 hours in an aeroplane which: (1) is certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons; and (2) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. SKILL TEST 8. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane and the IR skill test on a multi-engine aeroplane. B. ATP modular course — aeroplanes Applicants for an ATPL(A) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall: 104 of 262 (a) hold at least a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and (b) complete at least the following hours of theoretical knowledge instruction: (1) for applicants holding a PPL(A): 650 hours; (2) for applicants holding a CPL(A): 400 hours; (3) for applicants holding an IR(A): 500 hours; and (4) for applicants holding a CPL(A) and an IR(A): 250 hours. The theoretical knowledge instruction shall be completed before the skill test for the ATPL(A) is taken. C. CPL/IR integrated course — aeroplanes GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(A) and IR(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate single-pilot single-engine or multi-engine aeroplanes in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(A)/IR. 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(A)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrants, 50 % of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours of flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual training flight time. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) and IR knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. A CPL(A)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(A) and an IR. FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 40 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time; 105 of 262  (b) 70 hours as PIC, including VFR flight and instrument flight time which may be flown as SPIC. The instrument flight time as SPIC shall only be counted as PIC flight time up to a maximum of 20 hours; (c) 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; (d) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least: (1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation; (2) five solo take-offs; and (3) five solo full-stop landings; (e) 100 hours of instrument time comprising, at least: (1) 20 hours as SPIC; and (2) 50 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to: (i) 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I; or (ii) 40 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT II, an FTD 2 or an FFS, of which up to 10 hours may be conducted in an FNPT I. Applicants holding a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and (f) 5 hours in an aeroplane which: (1) is certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons; and (2) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. SKILL TESTS 10. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(A) skill test and the IR skill test on either a multi-engine aeroplane or a single-engine aeroplane. D. CPL integrated course — aeroplanes GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(A) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(A). 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(A) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of PPL(A) or PPL(H) entrants, 50 % of the hours flown prior to the course shall be credited, up to a maximum of 40 hours of flying experience, or 45 hours if an aeroplane night rating has been obtained, of which up to 20 hours may count towards the requirement for dual training flight time. 106 of 262 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL(A) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. A CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEGDE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(A). FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training, not including type rating training, shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours for the entire course may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 80 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time; (b) 70 hours as PIC; (c) 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; (d) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least: (1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation; (2) five solo take-offs; and (3) five solo full-stop landings; (e) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, an FTD 2, an FNPT II or an FFS. Applicants holding a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and (f) 5 hours in an aeroplane which: (1) is certificated for the carriage of at least four persons; and (2) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. SKILL TEST 9. Upon completion of the flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(A) skill test on a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane. 107 of 262 E. CPL modular course — aeroplanes GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(A) modular course is to train PPL(A) holders to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(A). 2. Before commencing a CPL(A) modular course, applicants shall be holders of a PPL(A) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. 3. Before commencing the flight training, applicants shall: (a) have completed 150 hours of flight time; Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in aeroplanes, hours as PIC in other categories of aircraft may count towards the 150 hours of aeroplane flight time in the following cases: (1) 20 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a PPL(H); or (2) 50 hours in helicopters, if applicants hold a CPL(H); or (3) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or (4) 20 hours in airships, if applicants hold a PPL(As); or (5) 50 hours in airships, if applicants hold a CPL(As). (b) have complied with the prerequisites for the issue of a class or type rating for multi-engine aeroplanes in accordance with Subpart H, if a multi-engine aeroplane is to be used in the skill test. 4. Applicants wishing to undertake a modular CPL(A) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO conducting theoretical knowledge instruction only. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(A) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved CPL(A) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(A). FLYING TRAINING 8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 25 hours of dual flight instruction, including 10 hours of instrument instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in a BITD, an FNPT I or II, an FTD 2 or an FFS. 9. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be credited up to 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time, in which case at least 5 hours of dual instrument instruction time shall be given in an aeroplane. Applicants 108 of 262  holding a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. 10. (a) Applicants with a valid IR shall be given at least 15 hours of dual visual flight instruction. (b) Applicants without a night rating aeroplane shall be given additionally at least 5 hours of night flight instruction, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least: (1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation; (2) five solo take-offs; and (3) five solo full-stop landings. 11. At least 5 hours of the flight instruction shall be carried out in an aeroplane which: (a) is certificated for the carriage of at least 4 persons; and (b) has a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. EXPERIENCE 12.1. Applicants for a CPL(A) shall have completed at least 200 hours of flight time, including at least: (a) 100 hours as PIC, of which 20 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, which shall include one VFR cross-country flight of at least 540 km (300 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; (b) 5 hours of flight time at night, comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, which shall include at least: (1) 1 hour of cross-country navigation; (2) five solo take-offs; and (3) five solo full-stop landings; (c) 10 hours of instrument flight instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I, an FNPT II or an FFS. Applicants holding a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module shall be credited with up to 10 hours towards the required instrument instruction time. Hours done in a BITD shall not be credited; and (d) 6 hours of flight time in a multi-engine aeroplane, if a multi-engine aeroplane is used for the skill test. 12.2. Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 200 hours of flight time, in the following cases: (a) 30 hours in helicopter if applicants hold a PPL(H); or (b) 100 hours in helicopters if applicants hold a CPL(H); or (c) 30 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or (d) 30 hours in airships if applicants hold a PPL(As); or (e) 60 hours in airships if applicants hold a CPL(As). 109 of 262 SKILL TEST 13. Upon completion of the flying training and relevant experience requirements, applicants shall take the CPL(A) skill test on either a single-engine or a multi-engine aeroplane. F. ATP/IR integrated course — helicopters GENERAL 1. The aim of the ATP(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate as co-pilots of multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR. 2. Applicants wishing to undertake an ATP(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of PPL(H) entrants, 50 % of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of: (a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or (b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) and IR knowledge level; (b) visual and instrument flying training; and (c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire ATP(H) /IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An ATP(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction. 7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 25 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 8. Applicants shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of an ATPL(H) and an IR. FLYING TRAINING 9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 195 hours, including all progress tests. Within the total of 195 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 140 hours of dual instruction, of which: (1) 75 hours of visual instruction may include: (i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS, level C/D; or 110 of 262  (ii) 25 hours in an FTD 2/3; or (iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or (iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG; (2) 50 hours of instrument instruction may include: (i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II/III; or (ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT 1 or an aeroplane; and (3) 15 hours of MCC, for which a helicopter FFS or a helicopter FTD 2/3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III; (b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours of solo flight time during day and 1 hour of solo night flight time during shall be made; (c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full- stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; (d) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing; and (e) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising: (i) 10 hours of basic instrument instruction time; and (ii) 40 hours of IR training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR- certificated helicopter. SKILL TESTS 10. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi- engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter and shall comply with the requirements for MCC training. G. ATP integrated course — helicopters GENERAL 1. The aim of the ATP(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate as co-pilots of multi-pilot multi-engine helicopters limited to VFR privileges in commercial air transport and to obtain the CPL(H). 2. Applicants wishing to undertake an ATP(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 111 of 262 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of PPL(H) entrants, 50 % of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of: (a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or (b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(H) knowledge level; (b) visual and basic instrument flying training; and (c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot helicopters. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire ATP(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An ATP(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 650 hours of instruction. 7. The MCC course shall comprise at least 20 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction exercises. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 8. Applicants shall demonstrate the level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of an ATPL (H). FLYING TRAINING 9. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 150 hours, including all progress tests. Within the total of 150 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 95 hours of dual instruction, of which: (1) 75 hours of visual instruction may include: (i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or (ii) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2/3; or (iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or (iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG; (2) 10 hours of basic instrument instruction may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane; and (3) 10 hours of MCC, for which a helicopter, helicopter FFS, FTD 2/3(MCC) or FNPT II/III(MCC) may be used. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the helicopter FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the helicopter FNPT II/III; 112 of 262  (b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours of solo flight time during day and 1 hour of solo flight time during night shall be made; (c) 50 hours of cross-country flight, including at least 10 hours of cross-country flight as SPIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full- stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; and (d) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing. SKILL TESTS 10. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(H) skill test on a multi- engine helicopter and comply with MCC requirements. H. ATP modular course — helicopters 1. Applicants for an ATPL(H) who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction within a period of 18 months: (a) for applicants holding a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention, 550 hours; and (b) for applicants holding a CPL(H), 300 hours. 2. Applicants for an ATPL(H)/IR who complete their theoretical knowledge instruction at a modular course shall hold at least a PPL(H) and complete at least the following hours of instruction: (a) for applicants holding a PPL(H), 650 hours; (b) for applicants holding a CPL(H), 400 hours; (c) for applicants holding an IR(H), 500 hours; and (d) for applicants holding a CPL(H) and an IR(H), 250 hours. I. CPL/IR integrated course — helicopters GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(H)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate single-pilot multi-engine helicopters and to obtain the CPL(H)/IR multi-engine helicopter. 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(H)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of entrants holding a PPL(H), 50% of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of: (a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or 113 of 262  (b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction, if a helicopter night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) and IR knowledge level, and the initial multi-engine helicopter type rating; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL(H)/IR course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. A CPL(H)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(H) and an IR. FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 180 hours, including all progress tests. Within the 180 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 125 hours of dual instruction, of which: (1) 75 hours of visual instruction which may include: (i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or (ii) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2/3; or (iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or (iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG; and (2) 50 hours of instrument instruction which may include: (i) up to 20 hours in a helicopter FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II,III; or (ii) 10 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III; (b) 55 hours as PIC, of which 40 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours of solo flight time during day and 1 hour of solo flight time during night shall be made; (c) 10 hours of dual cross-country flying; (d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; 114 of 262  (e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing; and (f) 50 hours of dual instrument time comprising: (i) 10 hours of basic instrument instruction time; and (ii) 40 hours of IR training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR- certificated helicopter. SKILL TEST 9. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(H) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine helicopter and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter. J. CPL integrated course — helicopters GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(H) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(H). 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(H) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrant or as holders of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of entrants holding a PPL(H), 50 % of the relevant experience shall be credited, up to a maximum of: (a) 40 hours, of which up to 20 hours may be dual instruction; or (b) 50 hours, of which up to 25 hours may be dual instruction if a helicopter night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL(H) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if applicants are holders of a PPL. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(H). 115 of 262 FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 135 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 135 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 85 hours of dual instruction, of which: (1) up to 75 hours may be visual instruction, and may include: (i) 30 hours in a helicopter FFS level C/D; or (ii) 25 hours in a helicopter FTD 2/3; or (iii) 20 hours in a helicopter FNPT II/III; or (iv) 20 hours in an aeroplane or TMG; (2) up to 10 hours may be instrument instruction, and may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FNPT I or an aeroplane. If the helicopter used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to that allocated for the FNPT II/III; (b) 50 hours as PIC, of which 35 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours of solo flight time during day and 1 hour of solo flight time during night shall be made; (c) 10 hours of dual cross-country flying; (d) 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km (100 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes from the aerodrome of departure shall be made; (e) 5 hours of flight time in helicopters at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing; and (f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in a helicopter. SKILL TEST 9. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(H) skill test. K. CPL modular course — helicopters GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(H) modular course is to train PPL(H) holders to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(H). 2. Before commencing a CPL(H) modular course, applicants shall be holders of a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. 3. Before commencing the flight training, applicants shall: (a) have completed 155 hours of flight time, including 50 hours as PIC in helicopters, of which 10 hours shall be cross-country. 116 of 262  Except for the requirement of 50 hours as PIC in helicopters, hours as PIC in other categories of aircraft may count towards the 155 hours of helicopter flight time in the following cases: (1) 20 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a PPL(A); or (2) 50 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a CPL(A); or (3) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or (4) 20 hours in airships if applicants hold a PPL(As); or (5) 50 hours in airships if applicants hold a CPL(As); and (b) have complied with FCL.725 and FCL.720.H if a multi-engine helicopter is to be used on the skill test. 4. Applicants wishing to undertake a modular CPL(H) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(H) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved CPL(H) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(H). FLYING TRAINING 8. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 30 hours of dual flight instruction, of which: (a) 20 hours of visual instruction which may include 5 hours in a helicopter FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II,III; and (b) 10 hours of instrument instruction which may include 5 hours in at least a helicopter FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane. 9. Applicants holding a valid IR(H) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR(A) shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in a helicopter. 10. Applicants without a night rating for helicopters shall be given additionally at least 5 hours of night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing. EXPERIENCE 11. Applicants for a CPL(H) shall have completed at least 185 hours of flight time, including 50 hours as PIC, of which 10 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 185 km 117 of 262  (100 NM), in the course of which full-stop landings at two aerodromes different from the aerodrome of departure shall be made. Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 185 hours of flight time, in the following cases: (a) 20 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a PPL(A); or (b) 50 hours in aeroplanes if applicants hold a CPL(A); or (c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or (d) 20 hours in airships if applicants hold a PPL(As); or (e) 50 hours in airships if applicants hold a CPL(As). SKILL TEST 12. Upon completion of the related flying training and relevant experience, applicants shall take the CPL(H) skill test. L. CPL/IR integrated course — airships GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(As)/IR integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships and to obtain the CPL(As)/IR. 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(As)/IR integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(As), a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. In the case of entrants holding a PPL(As),a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of: (a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or (b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction, if an airship night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) and IR knowledge level, and the initial airship type rating; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL/IR(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. A CPL(As)/IR theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 500 hours of instruction. 118 of 262 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(As) and an IR. FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 80 hours, including all progress tests. Within the total of 80 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 60 hours of dual instruction, of which: (1) 30 hours of visual instruction which may include: (i) 12 hours in an airship FFS; or (ii) 10 hours in an airship FTD; or (iii) 8 hours in an airship FNPT II/III; or (iv) 8 hours in an aeroplane, helicopter or TMG; and (2) 30 hours of instrument instruction which may include: (i) up to 12 hours in an airship FFS, FTD or FNPT II,III; or (ii) 6 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane. If the airship used for the flying training is of a different type from the FFS used for the visual training, the maximum credit shall be limited to 8 hours; (b) 20 hours as PIC, of which 5 hours may be as SPIC. At least 14 hours of solo flight time during day and 1 hour of solo flight time during night shall be made; (c) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which two full-stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made; (d) 5 hours of flight time in airships at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction, including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing; and (e) 30 hours of dual instrument time comprising: (1) 10 hours of basic instrument instruction time; and (2) 20 hours of IR training, which shall include at least 10 hours in a multi-engine IFR- certificated airship. SKILL TEST 9. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(As) skill test on either a multi-engine or a single-engine airship, and the IR skill test on an IFR-certificated multi-engine airship. 119 of 262 M. CPL integrated course — airships GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(As) integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(AS). 2. Applicants wishing to undertake a CPL(As) integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 3. Applicants may be admitted to training either as ab initio entrants or as holders of a PPL(As), a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. Entrants holding a PPL(As), a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) shall be credited up to a maximum of: (a) 10 hours, of which up to 5 hours may be dual instruction; or (b) 15 hours, of which up to 7 hours may be dual instruction if an airship night rating has been obtained. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. 5. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire CPL(As) course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 350 hours of instruction or 200 hours if applicants are PPL holders. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 7. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(As). FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 50 hours, including all progress tests, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time. Within the total of 50 hours, applicants shall complete at least: (a) 30 hours of dual instruction, of which up to 5 hours may be instrument ground time; (b) 20 hours as PIC; (c) 5 hours of dual cross-country flying; (d) 5 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which two full-stop landings at the destination aerodrome shall be made; (e) 5 hours of flight time in airships at night comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include take-off and landing; and (f) 10 hours of instrument dual instruction time, including at least 5 hours in an airship. 120 of 262 SKILL TEST 9. Upon completion of the related flying training, applicants shall take the CPL(As) skill test. N. CPL modular course — airships GENERAL 1. The aim of the CPL(As) modular course is to train PPL(As) holders to the level of proficiency necessary to obtain the CPL(As). 2. Before commencing a CPL(As) modular course, applicants shall: (a) hold a PPL(As) issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and (b) have completed 180 hours of flight time as pilots of airships, including 100 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours shall be cross-country. 3. Applicants wishing to undertake a modular CPL(As) course shall complete all the flight instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The theoretical knowledge instruction may be given at an ATO that conducts theoretical knowledge instruction only. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to CPL(As) knowledge level; and (b) visual and instrument flying training. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 5. An approved CPL(As) theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 250 hours of instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE EXAMINATION 6. Applicants shall demonstrate a level of knowledge appropriate to the privileges granted to holders of a CPL(As). FLYING TRAINING 7. Applicants without an IR shall be given at least 20 hours of dual flight instruction, of which: (a) 10 hours of visual instruction which may include 5 hours in an airship FFS, FTD 2/3 or FNPT II,III; and (b) 10 hours of instrument instruction which may include 5 hours in at least an airship FTD 1 or FNPT I or aeroplane. 8. Applicants holding a valid IR(As) shall be fully credited towards the dual instrument instruction time. Applicants holding a valid IR in another category of aircraft shall complete at least 5 hours of the dual instrument instruction time in an airship. 9. Applicants without a night rating airship shall be given additionally at least 5 hours of night flight instruction comprising 3 hours of dual instruction including at least 1 hour of cross-country navigation and five solo night circuits. Each circuit shall include a take-off and a landing. 121 of 262 EXPERIENCE 10. Applicants for a CPL(As) shall have completed at least 200 hours of flight time in airships, including 125 hours as PIC, of which 50 hours of cross-country flight as PIC, including one VFR cross-country flight of at least 90 km (50 NM), in the course of which a full-stop landing at the destination aerodrome shall be made. Hours as PIC of other categories of aircraft may count towards the 180 hours of flight time, required in point (2)(b), in the following cases; (a) 30 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters if applicants hold a PPL(A) or a PPL(H) respectively; or (b) 60 hours in aeroplanes or helicopters if applicants hold a CPL(A) or a CPL(H) respectively; or (c) 10 hours in TMGs or sailplanes; or (d) 10 hours in balloons. SKILL TEST 11. Upon completion of the related flying training and acquisition of the relevant experience, applicants shall take the CPL(As) skill test. 122 of 262  Appendix 4 Skill test for the issue of a CPL A. General 1. Applicants for a skill test for the CPL shall have received instruction in the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test. 2. Applicants shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require applicants to repeat the entire test. Failure in any section in the case of a retest, including those sections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require applicants to repeat the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the test in two attempts will require further training. 3. Further training may be required following any failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted. CONDUCT OF THE TEST 4. Should applicants choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the FE, they shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the FE, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight. 5. At the discretion of the FE, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicants. The FE may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicants’ demonstration of flying skills requires a complete retest. 6. Applicants shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed. The test shall be performed as if no other crew member was present. 7. Applicants shall indicate to the FE the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During preflight preparation for the test, applicants are required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by applicants in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used. 8. The FE shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. B. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — aeroplanes 1. The aeroplane used for the skill test shall: (a) meet the requirements for training aeroplanes; (b) be certificated for the carriage of at least four persons; and (c) have a variable pitch propeller and retractable landing gear. 123 of 262 2. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and the destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. Applicants shall be responsible for the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 90 minutes. 3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and (e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES 4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used. Height normal flight ±100 ft with simulated engine failure ±150 ft Tracking on radio aids ±5° Heading normal flight ±10° with simulated engine failure ±15° Speed take-off and approach ±5 knots all other flight regimes ±10 knots CONTENT OF THE TEST 5. Items in Section 2 (c) and (e)(iv), and the whole of Sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an FNPT II or an FFS. Use of the aeroplane checklists, airmanship, control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, anti- icing/de-icing procedures and principles of TEM apply to all sections. 124 of 262 SECTION 1 — PREFLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE Preflight, including: a flight planning, documentation, mass and balance determination, weather brief and notices to airmen (NOTAMs) b Aeroplane inspection and servicing c Taxiing and take-off d Performance considerations and trim e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout) g ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK Control of the aeroplane by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, a lookout b Flight at critically low airspeeds including recognition of and recovery from incipient and full stalls c Turns, including turns in landing configuration. Steep turns 45° d Flight at critically high airspeeds, including recognition of and recovery from spiral dives Flight by reference solely to instruments, including: (i) level flight, cruise configuration, control of heading, altitude and airspeed e (ii) climbing and descending turns with 10°–30° bank (iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes (iv) limited panel instruments f ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 3 — EN ROUTE PROCEDURES 125 of 262  Control of aeroplane by external visual reference, including cruise configuration a Range/endurance considerations b Orientation, map reading c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout d Altimeter setting. ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment e of correct tracking f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning Tracking, positioning (non-directional beacon (NDB) or VHF omnidirectional radio range (VOR)), g identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight) SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout b ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures c Go-around action from low height d Normal landing, crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) e Short field landing f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only) g Landing without use of flaps h Post flight actions SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4. 126 of 262  a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill Equipment malfunctions: b including alternative landing gear extension, electrical and brake failure c Forced landing (simulated) d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures e Oral questions SECTION 6 — SIMULATED ASYMMETRIC FLIGHT AND RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5. a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS) b Asymmetric approach and go-around c Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing d Engine shutdown and restart e ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, airmanship As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable: f (i) aeroplane systems including handling of autopilot (ii) operation of pressurisation system (iii) use of de-icing and anti-icing system g Oral questions C. Content of the skill test for the issue of the CPL — helicopters 1. The helicopter used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training helicopters. 2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE and all low-level and hover work shall be at an approved aerodrome/site. Routes used for Section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at 127 of 262  another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in two flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 90 minutes. 3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the helicopter within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and (e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES 4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used. Height normal flight ±100 ft simulated major emergency ±150 ft Tracking on radio aids ±10° Heading normal flight ±10° simulated major emergency ±15° Speed take-off and approach multi-engine ±5 knots all other flight regimes ±10 knots Ground drift T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 ft landing no sideways or backwards movement 128 of 262 CONTENT OF THE TEST 5. Items in Section 4 may be performed in a helicopter FNPT or a helicopter FFS. Use of helicopter checklists, airmanship, control of helicopter by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of TEM apply to all sections. SECTION 1 — PREFLIGHT/POSTFLIGHT CHECKS AND PROCEDURES Helicopter knowledge (e.g. technical log, fuel, mass and balance, performance), flight planning, a documentation, NOTAMs, weather b Preflight inspection/action, location of parts and purpose c Cockpit inspection, starting procedure d Communication and navigation equipment checks, selecting and setting frequencies e Pre-take-off procedure, R/T procedures, ATC liaison — compliance f Parking, shutdown and post flight procedure SECTION 2 — HOVER MANOEUVRES, ADVANCED HANDLING AND CONFINED AREAS a Take-off and landing (lift-off and touchdown) b Taxi, hover taxi c Stationary hover with head/cross/tail wind d Stationary hover turns, 360° left and right (spot turns) e Forward, sideways and backwards hover manoeuvring f Simulated engine failure from the hover g Quick stops into and downwind h Sloping ground/unprepared sites landings and take-offs i Take-offs (various profiles) j Crosswind, downwind take-off (if practicable) k Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated) l Approaches (various profiles) m Limited power take-off and landing n Auto rotations (FE to select two items from — basic, range, low speed, and 360° turns) 129 of 262 o Auto rotative landing p Practice forced landing with power recovery q Power checks, reconnaissance technique, approach and departure technique SECTION 3 — NAVIGATION — EN ROUTE PROCEDURES a Navigation and orientation at various altitudes/heights, map reading b Altitude/height, speed, heading control, observation of airspace, altimeter setting Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, endurance, estimated time of arrival (ETA), c assessment of track error and re-establishment of correct track, instrument monitoring d Observation of weather conditions, diversion planning e Tracking, positioning (NDB and/or VOR), identification of facilities f ATC liaison and observance of regulations, etc. SECTION 4 — FLIGHT PROCEDURES AND MANOEUVRES BY SOLE REFERENCE TO INSTRUMENTS a Level flight, control of heading, altitude/height and speed b Rate 1 level turns onto specified headings, 180°to 360°left and right c Climbing and descending, including turns at rate 1 onto specified headings d Recovery from unusual attitudes e Turns with 30° bank, turning up to 90° left and right SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (SIMULATED WHERE APPROPRIATE) Note 1: Where the test is conducted on a multi-engine helicopter, a simulated engine failure drill, including a single-engine approach and landing, shall be included in the test. Note 2: The FE shall select four items from the following: Engine malfunctions, including governor failure, carburettor/engine icing, oil system, as a appropriate b Fuel system malfunction c Electrical system malfunction d Hydraulic system malfunction, including approach and landing without hydraulics, as applicable e Main rotor and/or anti-torque system malfunction (FFS or discussion only) f Fire drills, including smoke control and removal, as applicable 130 of 262  Other abnormal and emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight manual, including for multi-engine helicopters: (i) simulated engine failure at take-off: rejected take-off at or before take-off decision point (TDP) or safe forced landing at or before defined point after take-off (DPATO), shortly g after TDP or DPATO. (ii) Landing with simulated engine failure: landing or go-around following engine failure before landing decision point (LDP) or defined point before landing (DPBL), following engine failure after LDP or safe forced landing after DPBL. D. Content of the skill test for the issue of a CPL — airships 1. The airship used for the skill test shall meet the requirements for training airships. 2. The area and route to be flown shall be chosen by the FE. Routes used for Section 3 may end at the aerodrome of departure or at another aerodrome and one destination shall be a controlled aerodrome. The skill test may be conducted in two flights. The total duration of the flight(s) shall be at least 60 minutes. 3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the airship within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and (e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES 4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the airship used. Height normal flight ±100 ft simulated major emergency ±150 ft Tracking on radio aids ±10° Heading normal flight ±10° simulated major emergency ±15° 131 of 262 CONTENT OF THE TEST 5. Items in Sections 5 and 6 may be performed in an airship FNPT or an airship FFS. Use of airship checklists, airmanship, control of airship by external visual reference, anti-icing procedures, and principles of TEM apply to all sections. SECTION 1 — PREFLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE Preflight, including: a flight planning, documentation, mass and balance determination, weather brief, NOTAMs b Airship inspection and servicing c Off-mast procedure, ground manoeuvring and take-off d Performance considerations and trim e Aerodrome and traffic pattern operations f Departure procedure, altimeter setting, collision avoidance (lookout) g ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 2 — GENERAL AIRWORK Control of the airship by external visual reference, including straight and level, climb, descent, a lookout b Flight at pressure height c Turns d Steep descents and climbs Flight by reference solely to instruments, including: (i) level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed e (ii) climbing and descending turns (iii) recoveries from unusual attitudes (iv) limited panel instruments 132 of 262 f ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 3 — EN ROUTE PROCEDURES Control of airship by external visual reference, a Range/endurance considerations b Orientation, map reading c Altitude, speed, heading control, lookout d Altimeter setting, ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, assessment of track error and re-establishment of e correct tracking f Observation of weather conditions, assessment of trends, diversion planning Tracking, positioning (NDB or VOR), identification of facilities (instrument flight). Implementation of g diversion plan to alternate aerodrome (visual flight) SECTION 4 — APPROACH AND LANDING PROCEDURES a Arrival procedures, altimeter setting, checks, lookout b ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures c Go-around action from low height d Normal landing e Short field landing f Approach and landing with idle power (single-engine only) g Landing without use of flaps h Postflight actions SECTION 5 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES 133 of 262 This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4. a Simulated engine failure after take-off (at a safe altitude), fire drill b Equipment malfunctions c Forced landing (simulated) d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures e Oral questions SECTION 6 — RELEVANT CLASS OR TYPE ITEMS This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5. a Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS) b Approach and go-around with failed engine(s) c Approach and full-stop landing with failed engine(s) d Malfunctions in the envelope pressure system e ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, airmanship As determined by the FE — any relevant items of the class or type rating skill test to include, if applicable: f (i) airship systems (ii) operation of envelope pressure system g Oral questions 134 of 262  Appendix 5 Integrated MPL training course GENERAL 1. The aim of the MPL integrated course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate as co-pilots of a multi-engine multi-pilot turbine-powered air transport aeroplane under VFR and IFR and to obtain an MPL. 2. Approval for an MPL training course shall only be granted to an ATO that is part of a commercial air transport operator certificated in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 or having a specific arrangement with such an operator. 3. Applicants wishing to undertake an MPL integrated course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. The training shall be competency-based and conducted in a multi-crew operational environment. 4. Only ab initio applicants shall be admitted to the course. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the ATPL(A) knowledge level; (b) visual and instrument flying training; (c) training in MCC for the operation of multi-pilot aeroplanes; (d) UPRT in accordance with FCL.745.A unless applicants have already completed this training course before starting the MPL course; and (e) type rating training. 6. Applicants failing or being unable to complete the entire MPL course may apply to the competent authority for the theoretical knowledge examination and skill test for a licence with lower privileges and an IR if the applicable requirements are met. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 7. An approved MPL theoretical knowledge course shall comprise at least 750 hours of instruction for the ATPL(A) knowledge level, as well as the hours required for: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction for the relevant type rating, in accordance with Subpart H.; and (b) UPRT theoretical knowledge instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A. FLYING TRAINING 8. The flying training shall comprise a total of at least 240 hours, composed of hours as PF and PM, in actual and simulated flight, and covering the following four phases of training: (a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills Specific basic single-pilot training in an aeroplane. (b) Phase 2 — Basic Introduction of multi-crew operations and instrument flight. (c) Phase 3 — Intermediate 135 of 262  Application of multi-crew operations to a multi-engine turbine aeroplane certified as a high- performance aeroplane in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748 /2012. (d) Phase 4 — Advanced Type rating training within an airline oriented environment. Flight experience in actual flight shall include: (1) all the experience requirements of Subpart H; (2) UPRT flight instruction in accordance with FCL.745.A; (3) aeroplane UPRT exercises related to the specificities of the relevant type in accordance with FCL.725.A(c); (4) night flying; and (5) flight solely by reference to instruments and the experience required to achieve the relevant airmanship. MCC requirements shall be incorporated into the relevant phases above. Training in asymmetric flight shall be given either in an aeroplane or an FFS. 9. Each phase of training in the flight instruction syllabus shall be composed of both instruction in the underpinning knowledge and in practical training segments. 10. The training course shall include a continuous evaluation process of the training syllabus and a continuous assessment of the students following the syllabus. The evaluation shall ensure that: (a) the competencies and related assessment are relevant to the task of co-pilots of a multi-pilot aeroplane; and (b) the students acquire the necessary competencies in a progressive and satisfactory manner. 11. The training course shall include at least 12 take-offs and landings to ensure competency. These take- offs and landings shall be performed under the supervision of an instructor in an aeroplane for which the type rating shall be issued. ASSESSMENT LEVEL 12. Applicants for the MPL shall have demonstrated performance in all nine competency units specified in paragraph 13 below, at the advanced level of competency required to operate and interact as co-pilots of a turbine-powered multi-pilot aeroplane, under visual and instrument conditions. The assessment shall confirm that control of the aeroplane or situation is maintained at all times, to ensure the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre. Applicants shall consistently demonstrate the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for the safe operation of the applicable aeroplane type, in accordance with the MPL performance criteria. COMPETENCY UNITS 13. Applicants shall demonstrate competency in the following nine competency units: (a) apply human performance principles, including principles of TEM; (b) perform aeroplane ground operations; 136 of 262  (c) perform take-off; (d) perform climb; (e) perform cruise; (f) perform descent; (g) perform approach; (h) perform landing; and (i) perform after landing and aeroplane postflight operations. SIMULATED FLIGHT 14. Minimum requirements for FSTDs: (a) Phase 1 — Core flying skills E-training and part-tasking devices approved by the competent authority that have the following characteristics: (1) involve accessories beyond those normally associated with desktop computers, such as functional replicas of a throttle quadrant, a side-stick controller or a flight management system (FMS) keypad; and (2) involve psychomotor activity with appropriate application of force and timing of responses. (b) Phase 2 — Basic An FNPT II MCC that represents a generic multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane. (c) Phase 3 — Intermediate An FSTD that represents a multi-engine turbine-powered aeroplane required to be operated with co-pilots and qualified to an equivalent standard to level B, additionally including: (1) a daylight/twilight/night visual system continuous cross-cockpit minimum collimated visual field of view providing each pilot with 180° horizontal and 40° vertical field of view; and (2) ATC environment simulation. (d) Phase 4 — Advanced An FFS which is fully equivalent to level D or level C with an enhanced daylight visual system, including ATC environment simulation. 137 of 262  Appendix 6 Modular training courses for the IR A. IR(A) — modular flying training course GENERAL 1. The aim of the IR(A) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined: (a) Basic Instrument Flight Module This comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground time in a BITD, FNPT I or II or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued with a module completion certificate. (b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module This comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(A), 40 hours of single-engine or 45 hours of multi-engine instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(A). 2. Applicants for a modular IR(A) course shall be holders of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). Applicants for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, who do not hold a CPL(A), shall be holders of a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module. The ATO shall ensure that applicants for a multi-engine IR(A) course who have not held a multi-engine aeroplane class or type rating have received the multi-engine training specified in Subpart H prior to commencing the flight training for the IR(A) course. 3. Applicants wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(A) course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training as arranged by an ATO. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicants in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required. 4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical knowledge examinations. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level; and (b) instrument flight instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction. 138 of 262 FLYING TRAINING 7. A single-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 50 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 35 hours in an FFS or an FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. 8. A multi-engine IR(A) course shall comprise at least 55 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 25 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 40 hours in an FFS or an FNPT II. A maximum of 10 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. The remaining instrument flight instruction shall include at least 15 hours in multi-engine aeroplanes. 9. Holders of a single-engine IR(A) who also hold a multi-engine class or type rating, wishing to obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time, shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours of instruction in instrument flying in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or an FNPT II. 10.1 Holders of a CPL(A) or of a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced by 10 hours. 10.2 Holders of an IR(H) may have the total amount of training required in paragraphs 7 or 8 above reduced to 10 hours. 10.3 The total instrument flight instruction in aeroplane shall comply with paragraph 7 or 8, as appropriate. 11. The flying exercises up to the IR(A) skill test shall comprise: (a) Basic Instrument Flight Module Procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least: (1) basic instrument flight without external visual cues: (i) horizontal flight; (ii) climbing; (iii) descent; and (iv) turns in level flight, climbing, descent; (2) instrument pattern; (3) steep turn; (4) radio navigation; (5) recovery from unusual attitudes; (6) limited panel; and (7) recognition and recovery from incipient and full stalls; and (b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module (1) Preflight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan; (2) Procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least: 139 of 262  (i) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off; (ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals; (iii) en route IFR procedures; (iv) holding procedures; (v) instrument approaches to specified minima; (vi) missed approach procedures; and (vii) landings from instrument approaches, including circling; (3) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics; and (4) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including: (i) operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative; and (ii) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II). Aa. IR(A) — competency-based modular flying training course GENERAL 1. The aim of the competency-based modular flying training course is to train PPL or CPL holders for the instrument rating, taking into account prior instrument flight instruction and experience. It is designed to provide the level of proficiency needed to operate aeroplanes under IFR and in IMC. The course shall: (a) be taken within an ATO; or (b) consist of a combination of instrument flight instruction provided by: (1) an IRI(A); or (2) an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR and flight instruction within an ATO. 2. Applicants for such a competency-based modular IR(A) shall be holders of a PPL(A) or a CPL(A). 3. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The instrument flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical knowledge examinations. 4. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR(A) knowledge level; and (b) instrument flight instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 5. An approved competency-based modular IR(A) course shall comprise at least 80 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction. The theoretical knowledge course may contain computer-based training and 140 of 262  e-learning elements. A minimum amount of classroom teaching as required by ORA.ATO.305 has to be provided. FLYING TRAINING 6. The method of obtaining an IR(A) following this modular course is competency-based. However, the minimum requirements below shall be met by the applicants. Additional training may be required to reach required competencies. (a) A single-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 40 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 25 hours in an FFS or an FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. (1) When applicants have: (i) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or (ii) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, under a rating providing the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC, these hours may be credited towards the requirement for 40 hours of instrument time under instruction mentioned above up to maximum of 30 hours. (2) When applicants have prior instrument flight time under instruction other than that specified in point (a)(1), these hours may be credited towards the required 40 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours. (3) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in an aeroplane at an ATO. (4) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours. (b) A multi-engine competency-based modular IR(A) course shall include at least 45 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 10 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 30 hours in an FFS or an FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. (1) When applicants have: (A) completed instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or an FI(A) holding the privilege to provide training for the IR; or (B) prior experience of instrument flight time as PIC in aeroplanes, under a rating giving the privileges to fly under IFR and in IMC, these hours may be credited towards the 45 hours of instrument time under instruction mentioned above up to a maximum of 35 hours. (2) When applicants have prior instrument flight time under instruction other than that specified in point (b)(1), these hours may be credited towards the required 45 hours up to a maximum of 15 hours. 141 of 262  (3) In any case, the flying training shall include at least 10 hours of instrument flight time under instruction in a multi-engine aeroplane at an ATO. (4) The total amount of dual instrument instruction shall not be less than 25 hours, of which at least 15 hours shall be completed in a multi-engine aeroplane. (c) To determine the number of hours credited and to establish the training needs, applicants shall complete a pre-entry assessment at an ATO. (d) The completion of the instrument flight instruction provided by an IRI(A) or FI(A) in accordance with points (a)(i) or (b)(i) shall be documented in a specific training record and signed by the instructor. 7. The flight instruction for the competency-based modular IR(A) shall comprise: (a) procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least: (1) basic instrument flight without external visual cues; (2) horizontal flight; (3) climbing; (4) descent; (5) turns in level flight, climbing and descent; (6) instrument pattern; (7) steep turn; (8) radio navigation; (9) recovery from unusual attitudes; (10) limited panel; and (11) recognition and recovery from incipient and full stall; (b) preflight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan; (c) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal, and emergency conditions covering at least: (1) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off; (2) standard instrument departures and arrivals; (3) en route IFR procedures; (4) holding procedures; (5) instrument approaches to specified minima; (6) missed approach procedures; and (7) landings from instrument approaches, including circling; (d) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics; and 142 of 262  (e) if required, operation of a multi-engine aeroplane in the above exercises, including: (1) operation of the aeroplane solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative; and (2) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II). 8. Applicants for the competency-based modular IR(A) holding a Part-FCL PPL or a Part-FCL CPL and a valid IR(A) issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be credited in full towards the training course mentioned in paragraph 4. In order to be issued with the IR(A), applicants shall: (a) pass the skill test for the IR(A) in accordance with Appendix 7; (b) demonstrate to the examiner during the skill test that they have acquired an adequate level of theoretical knowledge of air law, meteorology and flight planning and performance (IR); and (c) have a minimum experience of at least 50 hours of flight time under IFR as PIC in aeroplanes. PRE-ENTRY ASSESSMENT 9. The content and duration of the pre-entry assessment shall be determined by the ATO based on the prior instrument experience of the applicants. MULTI-ENGINE 10. Holders of a single-engine IR(A) who also hold a multi-engine class or type rating, wishing to obtain a multi-engine IR(A) for the first time, shall complete a course at an ATO comprising at least 5 hours of instrument time under instruction in multi-engine aeroplanes, of which 3 hours may be in an FFS or an FNPT II and shall pass a skill test. B. IR(H) — modular flying training course 1. The aim of the IR(H) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate helicopters under IFR and in IMC. 2. Applicants for a modular IR(H) course shall be holders of a PPL(H), or a CPL(H) or an ATPL(H). Prior to commencing the aircraft instruction phase of the IR(H) course, applicants shall either be holders of the helicopter type rating used for the IR(H) skill test or have completed approved type rating training in that type. Applicants shall hold a certificate of satisfactory completion of MCC if the skill test is to be conducted in multi-pilot conditions. 3. Applicants wishing to undertake a modular IR(H) course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous course of training as arranged by an ATO. 4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The flight instruction and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical knowledge examinations. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level; and (b) instrument flight instruction. 143 of 262 THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved modular IR(H) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of instruction. FLYING TRAINING 7. A single-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 50 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which: (a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or an FNPT I (A). These 20 hours of instruction time in an FNPT I (H) or an FNPT I (A) may be substituted by 20 hours of instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or (b) up to 35 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS. The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated helicopter. 8. A multi-engine IR(H) course shall comprise at least 55 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which: (a) up to 20 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I (H) or an FNPT I (A). These 20 hours of instruction time in an FNPT I (H) or an FNPT I (A) may be substituted by 20 hours of instruction time for IR(H) in an aeroplane, approved for this course; or (b) up to 40 hours may be instrument ground time in a helicopter FTD 2/3, FNPT II/III or FFS. The instrument flight instruction shall include at least 10 hours in an IFR-certificated multi-engine helicopter. 9.1. Holders of an ATPL(H) shall have the theoretical knowledge instruction hours reduced by 50 hours. 9.2. Holders of an IR(A) may have the amount of training required reduced to 10 hours. 9.3. Holders of a PPL(H) with a helicopter night rating or a CPL(H) may have the total amount of instrument time under instruction required reduced by 5 hours. 10. The flying exercises up to the IR(H) skill test shall comprise: (a) preflight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan; (b) procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least: (1) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off; (2) standard instrument departures and arrivals; (3) en route IFR procedures; (4) holding procedures; (5) instrument approaches to specified minima; (6) missed approach procedures; and (7) landings from instrument approaches, including circling; (c) in-flight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics; and 144 of 262  (d) if required, operation of a multi-engine helicopter in the above exercises, including: (1) operation of the helicopter solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative; and (2) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out in an FFS, an FNPT II or an FTD 2/3). C. IR(As) — modular flying training course GENERAL 1. The aim of the IR(As) modular flying training course is to train pilots to the level of proficiency necessary to operate airships under IFR and in IMC. The course consists of two modules, which may be taken separately or combined: (a) Basic Instrument Flight Module This module comprises 10 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 5 hours can be instrument ground time in a BITD, an FNPT I or II or an FFS. Upon completion of the Basic Instrument Flight Module, the candidate shall be issued with a module completion certificate. (b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module This module comprises the remainder of the training syllabus for the IR(As), 25 hours of instrument time under instruction, and the theoretical knowledge course for the IR(As). 2. Applicants for a modular IR(As) course shall be holders of a PPL(As) including the privileges to fly at night or a CPL(As). Applicants for the Procedural Instrument Flight Module who do not hold a CPL(As) shall be holders of a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module. 3. Applicants wishing to undertake the Procedural Instrument Flight Module of a modular IR(As) course shall complete all the instructional stages in one continuous approved course of training as arranged by an ATO. Prior to commencing the Procedural Instrument Flight Module, the ATO shall ensure the competence of the applicants in basic instrument flying skills. Refresher training shall be given as required. 4. The course of theoretical instruction shall be completed within 18 months. The Procedural Instrument Flight Module and the skill test shall be completed within the period of validity of the pass in the theoretical knowledge examinations. 5. The course shall comprise: (a) theoretical knowledge instruction to the IR knowledge level; and (b) instrument flight instruction. THEORETICAL KNOWLEDGE 6. An approved modular IR(As) course shall comprise at least 150 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction. FLYING TRAINING 7. An IR(As) course shall comprise at least 35 hours of instrument time under instruction, of which up to 15 hours may be instrument ground time in an FNPT I or up to 20 hours in an FFS or an FNPT II. A maximum of 5 hours of FNPT II or FFS instrument ground time may be conducted in an FNPT I. 145 of 262 8. Holders of a CPL(As) or of a module completion certificate for the Basic Instrument Flight Module may have the total amount of training required in paragraph 7 reduced by 10 hours. The total instrument flight instruction in airship shall comply with paragraph 7. 9. If applicants are holders of an IR in another category of aircraft, the total amount of flight instruction required may be reduced to 10 hours on airships. 10. The flying exercises up to the IR(As) skill test shall comprise: (a) Basic Instrument Flight Module Procedures and manoeuvres for basic instrument flight covering at least: (1) basic instrument flight without external visual cues: (i) horizontal flight; (ii) climbing; (iii) descent; and (iv) turns in level flight, climbing and descent; (2) instrument pattern; (3) radio navigation; (4) recovery from unusual attitudes; and (5) limited panel; (b) Procedural Instrument Flight Module (1) Preflight procedures for IFR flights, including the use of the flight manual and appropriate ATS documents in the preparation of an IFR flight plan; (2) Procedures and manoeuvres for IFR operation under normal, abnormal and emergency conditions covering at least: (i) transition from visual to instrument flight on take-off; (ii) standard instrument departures and arrivals; (iii) en route IFR procedures; (iv) holding procedures; (v) instrument approaches to specified minima; (vi) missed approach procedures; and (vii) landings from instrument approaches, including circling; (3) inflight manoeuvres and particular flight characteristics: and (4) operation of airship in the above exercises, including: (i) operation of the airship solely by reference to instruments with one engine simulated inoperative; and 146 of 262 (i) engine shutdown and restart (to be carried out at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II). 147 of 262  Appendix 7 IR skill test 1. Applicants for the issue of an IR shall have received instruction in the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test which shall be appropriately equipped for the training and testing purposes. 2. Applicants shall pass all the relevant sections of the skill test. Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require applicants to repeat the entire test. Failure in any section in the case of a retest, including those sections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require the applicants to repeat the entire test again. All relevant sections of the skill test shall be completed within 6 months. Failure to achieve a pass in all relevant sections of the test in two attempts will require further training. 3. Further training may be required following a failed skill test. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted. CONDUCT OF THE TEST 4. The test is intended to simulate a real flight. The route to be flown shall be chosen by the examiner. An essential element is the ability of the applicants to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material. Applicants shall undertake the flight planning and shall ensure that all equipment and documentation for the execution of the flight are on board. The duration of the flight shall be at least 1 hour. 5. Should the applicants choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, they shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight. 6. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicants. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicants’ demonstration of flying skill requires a complete retest. 7. Applicants shall fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC functions can be performed. The test shall be performed as if there is was no other crew member present. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft, except when intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. 8. Decision heights/altitudes, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be determined by the applicants and agreed by the examiner. 9. Applicants for the issue of an IR shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the authorised checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken. During preflight preparation for the test, the applicants are required to determine power settings and speeds. Performance data for take- off, approach and landing shall be calculated by the applicants in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCES 10. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the aircraft within its limitations; 148 of 262  (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; and (e) maintain control of the aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never seriously in doubt. 11. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aircraft used. Height Generally ±100 ft Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/–0 ft Minimum descent height/missed approach point +50 ft/–0 ft (MAPt)/altitude Tracking On radio aids ±5° For angular deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g. LPV, instrument landing system (ILS), microwave landing system (MLS), GBAS1 landing system (GLS)) 2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) ‘linear’ lateral cross-track error/deviation shall normally be deviations limited to ±½ of the RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard up to a maximum of one time the RNP value are allowable. 3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP APCH not more than –75 ft below the vertical profile (LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) at any time, and not more than +75 ft above the vertical profile at or below 1 000 ft above aerodrome level. Heading all engines operating ±5° with simulated engine failure ±10° Speed all engines operating ±5 knots with simulated engine failure +10 knots/–5 knots 1 Ground-based augmentation system 149 of 262 CONTENT OF THE TEST Aeroplanes SECTION 1 — PREFLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc. apply in to all sections a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation, mass and balance b Use of ATS document, weather document c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log d Identification of the required navigational aids for departure, arrival and approach procedures e Preflight inspection f Weather minima g Taxiing h PBN departure (if applicable): — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the departure chart. i Pre-take-off briefing, take-off J(°) Transition to instrument flight k(°) Instrument departure procedures, including PBN departures, and altimeter setting l(°) ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING(°) a Control of the aeroplane by reference solely to instruments, including: level flight at various speeds, trim b Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate 1 turn 150 of 262 c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 45° bank turns and steep descending turns d(*) Recovery from approach to stall in level flight, climbing/descending turns and in landing configuration — only applicable to aeroplanes e Limited panel: stabilised climb or descent, level turns at rate 1 onto given headings, recovery from unusual attitudes — only applicable to aeroplanes SECTION 3 — EN ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES(°) a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR or track between waypoints b Use of navigation system and radio aids c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique d Altimeter settings e Timing and revision of ETAs (en route hold, if required) f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary h ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 3a — ARRIVAL PROCEDURES a Setting and checking of navigational aids, if applicable b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks c Altitude and speed constraints, if applicable d PBN arrival (if applicable): — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the arrival chart. SECTION 4(°) — 3D Operations(++) 151 of 262 a Setting and checking of navigational aids Check vertical path angle For RNP APCH: — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart. b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks, including identification of facilities c(+) Holding procedure d Compliance with published approach procedure e Approach timing f Altitude, speed heading control (stabilised approach) g(+) Go-around action h(+) Missed approach procedure/landing i ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 5(°)— 2D OPERATIONS(++) Setting and checking of navigational aids For RNP APCH: a — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart. Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks, including identification b of facilities c(+) Holding procedure d Compliance with published approach procedure e Approach timing 152 of 262  Altitude/distance to MAPt, speed, heading control (stabilised approach), stop down fixes (SDF(s)), f if applicable g(+) Go-around action h(+) Missed approach procedure/landing i ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE (multi-engine aeroplanes only) (°) a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around b Approach, go-around and procedural missed approach with one engine inoperative c Approach and landing with one engine inoperative d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures (°) Must be performed by sole reference to instruments. (*) May be performed in an FFS, an FTD 2/3 or an FNPT II. (+) May be performed in either Section 5 or Section 6. (++) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. Helicopters SECTION 1 — DEPARTURE Use of checklist, airmanship, anti-icing/de-icing procedures, etc., apply to all sections a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation; mass and balance b Use of ATS document, weather document c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log d Identification of the required navigational aids for departure, arrival and approach procedures e Preflight inspection 153 of 262 f Weather minima g Taxiing/Air taxi in compliance with ATC or instructions of instructor h PBN departure (if applicable): — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the departure chart. j Pre-take-off briefing, procedures and checks k Transition to instrument flight l Instrument departure procedures, including PBN procedures SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING a Control of the helicopter by reference solely to instruments, including: b Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate 1 turn c Recoveries from unusual attitudes, including sustained 30 bank turns and steep descending turns SECTION 3 — EN ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV b Use of radio aids c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting d Altimeter settings e Timing and revision of ETAs f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems management g Ice protection procedures, simulated if necessary and if applicable h ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures 154 of 262 SECTION 3a — ARRIVAL PROCEDURES a Setting and checking of navigational aids, if applicable b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks c Altitude and speed constraints, if applicable d PBN arrival (if applicable) — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the arrival chart. SECTION 4 — 3D OPERATIONS(+) a Setting and checking of navigational aids Check vertical path angle For RNP APCH: — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart. b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks c(*) Holding procedure d Compliance with published approach procedure e Approach timing f Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach) g(*) Go-around action h(*) Missed approach procedure/landing i ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 5 — 2D OPERATIONS(+) 155 of 262 a Setting and checking of navigational aids For RNP APCH: — Check that the correct procedure has been loaded in the navigation system; and — Cross-check between the navigation system display and the approach chart. b Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks and identification of facilities c(*) Holding procedure d Compliance with published approach procedure e Approach timing f Altitude, speed, heading control (stabilised approach) g(*) Go-around action h(*) Missed approach procedure(*)/landing i ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 — ABNORMAL AND EMERGENCY PROCEDURES This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the helicopter, identification of the failed engine, immediate actions (touch drills), follow-up actions and checks and flying accuracy, in the following situations: a Simulated engine failure after take-off and on/during approach(**) (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS, an FNPT II/III or an FTD 2/3) b Failure of stability augmentation devices/hydraulic system, if applicable c Limited panel d Autorotation and recovery to a pre-set altitude e 3D operations manually without flight director(***) 3D operations manually with flight director(***) 156 of 262 (+) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach in either Section 4 or Section 5 shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. (*) To be performed in Section 4 or Section 5. (**) Multi-engine helicopter only. (***) Only one item to be tested Airships SECTION 1 — PREFLIGHT OPERATIONS AND DEPARTURE Use of checklist, airmanship, ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures, apply to all sections a Use of flight manual (or equivalent) especially aircraft performance calculation, mass and balance b Use of ATS document, weather document c Preparation of ATC flight plan, IFR flight plan/log d Preflight inspection e Weather minima f Pre-take-off briefing, off-mast procedure, manoeuvring on ground g Take-off h Transition to instrument flight i Instrument departure procedures, altimeter setting j ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 2 — GENERAL HANDLING a Control of the airship by reference solely to instruments b Climbing and descending turns with sustained rate of turn 157 of 262 c Recoveries from unusual attitudes d Limited panel SECTION 3 — EN ROUTE IFR PROCEDURES a Tracking, including interception, e.g. NDB, VOR, RNAV b Use of radio aids c Level flight, control of heading, altitude and airspeed, power setting, trim technique d Altimeter settings e Timing and revision of ETAs f Monitoring of flight progress, flight log, fuel usage, systems’ management g ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 4 — PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES a Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities b Arrival procedures, altimeter checks c Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks d(+) Holding procedure e Compliance with published approach procedure f Approach timing g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control) h(+) Go-around action i(+) Missed approach procedure/landing 158 of 262 j ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 5 — NON-PRECISION APPROACH PROCEDURES a Setting and checking of navigational aids, identification of facilities b Arrival procedures, altimeter settings c Approach and landing briefing, including descent/approach/landing checks d(+) Holding procedure e Compliance with published approach procedure f Approach timing g Stabilised approach (altitude, speed and heading control) h(+) Go-around action i(+) Missed approach procedure/landing j ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 — FLIGHT WITH ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5. The test shall have regard to control of the airship, identification of the failed engine, immediate actions, follow-up actions, checks and flying accuracy in the following situations: a Simulated engine failure after take-off or on go-around b Approach and procedural go-around with one engine inoperative c Approach and landing, missed approach procedure, with one engine inoperative d ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures (+) May be performed in either Section 4 or Section 5. 159 of 262  Appendix 8 Cross-crediting of the IR part of a class or type rating proficiency check A. Aeroplanes Credits shall be granted only when holders are revalidating IR privileges for single-pilot single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, as appropriate. When a proficiency check including IR is Credit is valid towards the IR part in a proficiency performed, and holders have a valid: check for: — MPA type rating; SE class rating *, and — Single-pilot high-performance SE type rating *, and complex aeroplane type rating SP ME class or type rating except for high- performance complex type ratings, only credits for Section 3B of the proficiency check in point B.5 of Appendix 9 SP ME aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating, and except for high-performance complex SE type rating, and aeroplane type ratings, operated as SP ME class or type rating except for high- single-pilot performance complex aeroplane type ratings SP ME aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating *, and except for high-performance complex SE type rating *, and aeroplane type ratings, restricted to MP SP ME class or type rating except for high- operation performance complex aeroplane type ratings** SP SE aeroplane class or type rating SE class rating, and SE type rating * Provided that within the preceding 12 months the applicants have flown at least three IFR departures and approaches exercising PBN privileges, including one RNP APCH approach on an SP class or type of aeroplane in SP operations, or, for multi-engine, other than high-performance complex aeroplanes, the applicants have passed Section 6 of the skill test for SP, other than HP complex aeroplanes flown solely by reference to instruments in SP operations. B. Helicopters Credits shall be granted only when holders are revalidating IR privileges for single-engine and single-pilot multi-engine helicopters as appropriate. When a proficiency check, including IR, is Credit is valid towards the IR part in a performed and holders have a valid: proficiency check for: Multi-pilot helicopter (MPH) type rating SE type rating*; and SP ME type rating*. SP ME type rating, operated as single-pilot SE type rating*; SP ME type rating*. 160 of 262 SP ME type rating, restricted to multi-pilot SE type rating*; operation SP ME type rating*. SP SE type rating, operated as single-pilot SP SE type rating, operated as single-pilot * Provided that within the preceding 12 months at least three IFR departures and approaches exercising PBN privileges, including one RNP APCH approach (could be a Point in Space (PinS) approach), have been performed on a SP type of helicopter in SP operations. 161 of 262  Appendix 9 Training, skill test and proficiency check for MPL, ATPL, type and class ratings, and proficiency check for IRs A. General 1. Applicants for a skill test shall have received instruction in the same class or type of aircraft to be used in the test. The training for MPA and PL type ratings shall be conducted in an FFS or in a combination of FSTD(s) and FFS. The skill test or proficiency check for MPA and PL type ratings and the issue of an ATPL and an MPL, shall be conducted in an FFS, if available. The training, skill test or proficiency check for class or type ratings for SPA and helicopters shall be conducted in: (a) an available and accessible FFS, or (b) a combination of FSTD(s) and the aircraft if an FFS is not available or accessible; or (c) the aircraft if no FSTD is available or accessible. If FSTDs are used during training, testing or checking, the suitability of the FSTDs used shall be verified against the applicable ‘Table of functions and subjective tests’ and the applicable ‘Table of FSTD validation tests’ contained in the primary reference document applicable for the device used. All restrictions and limitations indicated on the device’s qualification certificate shall be considered. 2. Failure to achieve a pass in all sections of the test in two attempts will require further training. 3. There is no limit to the number of skill tests that may be attempted. CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK 4. Unless otherwise determined in the OSD, the syllabus of flight instruction, the skill test and the proficiency check shall comply with this Appendix. The syllabus, skill test and proficiency check may be reduced to give credit for previous experience on similar aircraft types, as determined in the OSD. 5. Except in the case of skill tests for the issue of an ATPL, when so defined in the OSD for the specific aircraft, credit may be given for skill test items common to other types or variants where the pilots are qualified. CONDUCT OF THE TEST/CHECK 6. The examiner may choose between different skill test or proficiency check scenarios containing simulated relevant operations. Full-flight simulators and other training devices shall be used, as established in this Annex (Part-FCL). 7. During the proficiency check, the examiner shall verify that holders of the class or type rating maintain an adequate level of theoretical knowledge. 8. Should applicants choose to terminate a skill test for reasons considered inadequate by the examiner, they shall retake the entire skill test. If the test is terminated for reasons considered adequate by the examiner, only those sections not completed shall be tested in a further flight. 162 of 262 9. At the discretion of the examiner, any manoeuvre or procedure of the test may be repeated once by the applicants. The examiner may stop the test at any stage if it is considered that the applicants’ demonstration of flying skill requires a complete retest. 10. Applicants shall be required to fly the aircraft from a position where the PIC or co-pilot functions, as relevant, can be performed. Under single-pilot conditions, the test shall be performed as if there is was no other crew member present. 11. During preflight preparation for the test, applicants are required to determine power settings and speeds. Applicants shall indicate to the examiner the checks and duties carried out, including the identification of radio facilities. Checks shall be completed in accordance with the checklist for the aircraft on which the test is being taken and, if applicable, with the MCC concept. Performance data for take-off, approach and landing shall be calculated by applicants in compliance with the operations manual or flight manual for the aircraft used. Decision heights/altitudes, minimum descent heights/altitudes and missed approach point shall be agreed upon with the examiner. 12. The examiner shall take no part in the operation of the aircraft except where intervention is necessary in the interests of safety or to avoid unacceptable delay to other traffic. SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR THE SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK FOR MULTI-PILOT AIRCRAFT TYPE RATINGS, FOR SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANE TYPE RATINGS WHEN OPERATED IN MULTI-PILOT OPERATIONS, FOR MPL AND ATPL 13. The skill test for a multi-pilot aircraft or a single-pilot aeroplane when operated in multi-pilot operations shall be performed in a multi-crew environment. Another applicant or another type rated qualified pilot may function as the second pilot. If an aircraft is used, the second pilot shall be the examiner or an instructor. 14. Applicants shall operate as PF during all sections of the skill test, except for abnormal and emergency procedures, which may be conducted as PF or PM in accordance with MCC. Applicants for the initial issue of a multi-pilot aircraft type rating or ATPL shall also demonstrate the ability to act as PM. Applicants may choose either the left-hand or the right-hand seat for the skill test if all items can be executed from the selected seat. 15. The following matters shall be specifically checked by the examiner for applicants for the ATPL or a type rating for multi-pilot aircraft or for multi-pilot operations in a single-pilot aeroplane extending to the duties of a PIC, irrespective of whether the applicants act as PF or PM: (a) managing crew cooperation; (b) maintaining a general survey of the aircraft operation by appropriate supervision; and (c) setting priorities and making decisions in accordance with safety aspects and relevant rules and regulations appropriate to the operational situation, including emergencies. 16. The test or check should be accomplished under IFR, if the IR rating is included, and as far as possible be accomplished in a simulated commercial air transport environment. An essential element to be checked is the ability to plan and conduct the flight from routine briefing material. 17. When the type rating course has included less than 2 hours of flight training in the aircraft, the skill test may be conducted in an FFS and may be completed before the flight training in the aircraft. The approved flight training shall be performed by a qualified instructor under the responsibility of: 163 of 262  (a) an ATO; or (b) an organisation holding an AOC issued in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 and specifically approved for such training; or (c) the instructor, in cases where no aircraft flight training for SP aircraft at an ATO or AOC holder is approved, and the aircraft flight training was approved by the applicants’ competent authority. A certificate of completion of the type rating course including the flight training in the aircraft shall be forwarded to the competent authority before the new type rating is entered in the applicants’ licence. 18. For the upset recovery training, ‘stall event’ means either an approach-to-stall or a stall. An FFS can be used by the ATO to either train recovery from a stall or demonstrate the type-specific characteristics of a stall, or both, provided that: (a) the FFS has been qualified in accordance with the special evaluation requirements in CS-FSTD(A); and (b) the ATO has successfully demonstrated to the competent authority that any negative transfer of training is mitigated. B. Specific requirements for the aeroplane category PASS MARKS 1. In the case of single-pilot aeroplanes, with the exception of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, applicants shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in any item of a section will cause applicants to fail the entire section. If they fail only one section, they shall repeat only that section. Failure in more than one section will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Failure in any section in the case of a retest or recheck, including those sections that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check again. For single-pilot multi-engine aeroplanes, Section 6 of the relevant test or check, addressing asymmetric flight, shall be passed. 2. In the case of multi-pilot and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, applicants shall pass all sections of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require applicants to take the entire test or check again. Applicants failing 5 or fewer items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item on the retest or recheck, including those items that have been passed on a previous attempt, will require applicants to repeat the entire check or test again. Section 6 is not part of the ATPL or MPL skill test. If applicants only fail or do not take Section 6, the type rating will be issued without CAT II or CAT III privileges. To extend the type rating privileges to CAT II or CAT III, applicants shall pass the Section 6 on the appropriate type of aircraft. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE 3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the aeroplane within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; 164 of 262  (e) maintain control of the aeroplane at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt; (f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and (g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable. 4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the aeroplane used: Height Generally ±100 ft Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/–0 ft Minimum descent height/MAPt/altitude +50 ft/–0 ft Tracking On radio aids ±5° For ‘angular’ deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g. LPV, ILS, MLS, GLS) 2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) ‘linear’ lateral cross-track error/deviation shall normally be deviations limited to ±½ of the RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard up to a maximum of one time the RNP value are allowable. 3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP APCH not more than –75 ft below the vertical (LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) profile at any time, and not more than +75 ft above the vertical profile at or below 1 000 ft above aerodrome level. Heading all engines operating ±5° with simulated engine failure ±10° Speed all engines operating ±5 knots with simulated engine failure +10 knots/–5 knots CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK 5. Single-pilot aeroplanes, except for high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: 165 of 262  P= Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X= An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise, an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted on any higher level of equipment shown by the arrow (---->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A= aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred (*) items of Section 3B and, for multi-engine, Section 6, shall be flown solely by reference to instruments if revalidation/renewal of an IR is included in the skill test or proficiency check. If the starred (*) items are not flown solely by reference to instruments during the skill test or proficiency check, and when there is no crediting of IR privileges, the class or type rating will be restricted to VFR only. (d) Section 3A shall be completed to revalidate a type or multi-engine class rating, VFR only, where the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. Section 3A is not required if Section 3B is completed. (e) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise or a choice where more than one exercise appears. (f) An FSTD shall be used for practical training for type or ME class ratings if they form part of an approved class or type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); (ii) the qualifications of the instructors; (iii) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; and (iv) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (g) If privileges for multi-pilot operation are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for single-pilot operations shall: 166 of 262  (1) complete a bridge course containing manoeuvres and procedures including MCC as well as the exercises of Section 7 using team resource management (TRM), CRM and human factors at an ATO; and (2) pass a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations. (h) If privileges for single-pilot operations are sought for the first time, pilots holding privileges for multi-pilot operations shall be trained at an ATO and checked for the following additional manoeuvres and procedures in single-pilot operations: (1) for SE aeroplanes, 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 5.2 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B;and (2) for ME aeroplanes, 1.6, Section 6 and, if applicable, one approach from Section 3.B. (i) Pilots holding privileges for both single-pilot and multi-pilot operations in accordance with points (g) and (h) may revalidate privileges for both types of operations by completing a proficiency check in multi-pilot operations in addition to the exercises referred to in points (h)(1) or (h)(2), as applicable, in single-pilot operations. (j) If a skill test of a proficiency check is completed in multi-pilot operations only, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. The restriction shall be removed when pilots comply with point (h). (k) The training, testing and checking shall follow the table mentioned below. (1) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for single-pilot privileges (2) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for multi-pilot privileges (3) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding single-pilot privileges seeking multi-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (4) Training at an ATO, testing and checking requirements for pilots holding multi-pilot privileges seeking single-pilot privileges for the first time (bridge course) (5) Training at an ATO and checking requirements for combined revalidation and renewal of single and multi-pilot privileges 167 of 262  (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) Type of operation SP MP SP  MP (initial) MP  SP (initial) SP + MP Training Testing/ Training Testing/ Training Testing/checking Training, Training, SE aeroplanes ME aeroplanes checking checking testing and testing and checking checking (ME (SE aeroplanes) aeroplanes) Initial issue Sections 16 Sections 16 Sections Sections 17 MCC Sections 17 1.6, 4.5, 1.6, Section 6 17 CRM 4.6, 5.2 and, if and, if applicable, Human applicable, one approach factors one from Section TEM approach 3.B Section from 7 Section 3.B MPO: MPO: Sections 17 Sections 17 SPO: SPO: 1.6, 4.5, 4.6, 1.6, Section 6 Revalidation n/a Sections 1–6 n/a Sections 1–7 n/a n/a n/a n/a 5.2 and, if and, if applicable, one applicable, approach from one approach Section 3.B from Section 3.B Training: Training: FCL.740 FCL.740 Renewal FCL.740 Sections 16 FCL.740 Sections 16 n/a n/a n/a n/a Check: as for Check: as for the the revalidation revalidation 168 of 262 (l) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. 169 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed SECTION 1 1 Departure 1.1 Preflight including: — documentation; OTD — mass and balance; — weather briefing; and — NOTAM. 1.2 Pre-start checks 1.2.1 OTD External P M P# 1.2.2 OTD Internal P M P# 170 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 1.3 Engine starting: P----> ----> M normal malfunctions. 1.4 Taxiing P----> ----> M 1.5 Pre-departure checks: P----> ----> M engine run-up (if applicable) 1.6 Take-off procedure: — normal with flight manual flap P----> ----> M settings; and — crosswind (if conditions are available). 1.7 Climbing: — Vx/Vy; P----> ----> M — turns onto headings; and — level off. 1.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> M 171 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed SECTION 2 2 Airwork (visual meteorological conditions (VMC)) 2.1 Straight and level flight at various airspeeds P----> ----> including flight at critically low airspeed with and without flaps (including approach to V Vmca when applicable) 2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank) P----> ----> M 2.3 Stalls and recovery: (i) clean stall; (ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank with approach configuration and power; P----> ----> M (iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and power; and (iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take-off flap and climb power (single- engine aeroplanes only) 172 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 2.4 Handling using autopilot and flight director (may be conducted in Section 3), if P----> ----> M applicable 2.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 3A 3A En route procedures VFR (see B.5 (c) and (d)) P----> ----> 3A.1 Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading 3A.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed P----> ----> 3A.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs P----> ----> 3A.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable) P----> ----> 173 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 3A.5 Flight management (flight log, routine P----> ----> checks including fuel, systems and icing) 3A.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> SECTION 3B 3B Instrument flight P----> 3B.1* Departure IFR ----> M 3B.2* En route IFR P----> ----> M 3B.3* Holding procedures P----> ----> M 3B.4* 3D operations to decision height/altitude (DH/A) of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure (autopilot P----> ----> M may be used to the final approach segment vertical path intercept) 174 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 3B.5* 2D operations to minimum descent P----> ----> M height/altitude (MDH/A) 3B.6* Flight exercises including simulated failure of the compass and attitude indicator: P----> ----> M — rate 1 turns; and — recoveries from unusual attitudes. 3B.7* Failure of localiser or glideslope P----> ----> 3B.8* ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M Intentionally left blank SECTION 4 4 Arrival and landings P----> 4.1 Aerodrome arrival procedure ----> M 175 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 4.2 Normal landing P----> ----> M 4.3 Flapless landing P----> ----> M 4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) P----> ----> 4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000 ft above the runway (single- P----> ----> engine aeroplanes only) 4.6 Go-around from minimum height P----> ----> M 4.7 Night go-around and landing (if applicable) P----> ----> 4.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 5 176 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4.) 5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed P----> ----> M 5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off P M (single-engine aeroplanes only) 5.3 Simulated forced landing without power P M (single-engine aeroplanes only) 5.4 Simulated emergencies: (i) fire or smoke in flight; and P----> ----> (ii) systems’ malfunctions as appropriate 5.5 ME aeroplanes and TMG training only: engine shutdown and restart (at a safe P----> ----> altitude if performed in the aircraft) 177 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 5.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 6 Simulated asymmetric flight 6.1* (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5.) P----> --->X M Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS or an FNPT II) 6.2* Asymmetric approach and go-around P----> ----> M 6.3* Asymmetric approach and full-stop landing P----> ----> M 6.4 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures P----> ----> M SECTION 7 7 UPRT 178 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 7.1 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 7.1.1 Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, P-----> ----> and at different control laws, where applicable 7.1.1.1 At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD-validated P-----> ----> training envelope. 7.1.1.2 3.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to P-----> ----> 360° left and right 7.1.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 7.1.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure P-----> ----> and arrival, and visual approach 179 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 7.2 Upset recovery training 7.2.1 Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; — clean configuration at low altitude; P-----> ----> — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration 7.2.2 The following upset exercises: X P — recovery from nose-high at various An aeroplane bank angles; and FFS qualified for FFS only shall not be the training task — recovery from nose-low at various used for this only bank angles. exercise 7.3 Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument P---> -----> approach 180 of 262  TMGs AND SINGLE-PILOT AEROPLANES, CLASS OR TYPE RATING SKILL TEST OR EXCEPT FOR HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK AEROPLANES Instructor initials when Tested or checked Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A training completed in FSTD or A test or check completed 7.4 Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH 15 m (50 ft) above the runway threshold — after touchdown (baulked landing) — In aeroplanes which are not P-----> -----> certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. 181 of 262 6. Multi-pilot aeroplanes and single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes (a) The following symbols mean: P= Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable. OTD = Other training devices may be used for this exercise X= An FFS shall be used for this exercise; otherwise an aeroplane shall be used if appropriate for the manoeuvre or procedure P# = The training shall be complemented by supervised aeroplane inspection (b) The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (----->). The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: A= aeroplane FFS = full-flight simulator FSTD = flight simulation training device (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. (d) Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise. (e) An FFS shall be used for practical training and testing if the FFS forms part of an approved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (i) the qualifications of the instructors; (ii) the qualification and the amount of training provided on the course in an FSTD; and (iii) the qualifications and previous experience on similar types of the pilots under training. (f) Manoeuvres and procedures shall include MCC for multi-pilot aeroplane and for single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes in multi-pilot operations. (g) Manoeuvres and procedures shall be conducted in single-pilot role for single-pilot high- performance complex aeroplanes in single-pilot operations. (h) In the case of single-pilot high-performance complex aeroplanes, when a skill test or proficiency check is performed in multi-pilot operations, the type rating shall be restricted to multi-pilot operations. If privileges of single-pilot are sought, the manoeuvres/procedures in 2.5, 3.9.3.4, 4.3, 5.5 and at least one manoeuvre/procedure from Section 3.4 have to be completed in addition as single-pilot. (i) In the case of a restricted type rating issued in accordance with FCL.720.A(e), applicants shall fulfil the same requirements as other applicants for the type rating except for the practical exercises relating to the take-off and landing phases. 182 of 262 (j) To establish or maintain PBN privileges, one approach shall be an RNP APCH. Where an RNP APCH is not practicable, it shall be performed in an appropriately equipped FSTD. 183 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed SECTION 1 1 Flight preparation OTD 1.1 Performance calculation P 1.2 Aeroplane external visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of inspection OTD P# P 1.3 Cockpit inspection P-----> -----> 1.4 Use of checklist prior to starting engines, starting procedures, radio and navigation P-----> -----> M equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies 1.5 Taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or instructions of instructor P-----> -----> 1.6 Before take-off checks P-----> -----> M SECTION 2 184 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 2 Take-offs P-----> -----> 2.1 Normal take-offs with different flap settings, including expedited take-off 2.2* Instrument take-off; transition to instrument flight is required during rotation or P-----> -----> immediately after becoming airborne 2.3 Crosswind take-off P-----> -----> 2.4 Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or simulated maximum take-off mass) P-----> -----> 2.5 Take-offs with simulated engine failure: P-----> -----> 2.5.1* shortly after reaching V2 (In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category or commuter category aeroplanes, the engine failure shall not be simulated until reaching a minimum height of 500 ft above the runway end. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure shortly after reaching V2) 185 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed M FFS 2.5.2* between V1 and V2 P X only 2.6 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed before reaching V1 P-----> ---->X M SECTION 3 3 Flight manoeuvres and procedures 3.1 Manual flight with and without flight directors (no autopilot, no autothrust/autothrottle, and at different control laws, where applicable) P-----> ----> 3.1.1 At different speeds (including slow flight) and altitudes within the FSTD-validated training P-----> ----> envelope 3.1.2 Steep turns using 45° bank, 180° to 360° left and right P-----> ----> 3.1.3 Turns with and without spoilers P-----> ----> 186 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.1.4 Procedural instrument flying and manoeuvring including instrument departure and arrival, P-----> ----> and visual approach ---->X An aeropla ne 3.2 Tuck under and Mach buffets (if applicable), and other specific flight characteristics of the shall P-----> FFS only aeroplane (e.g. Dutch Roll) not be used for this exercis e OTD 3.3 Normal operation of systems and controls engineer’s panel (if applicable) -----> P-----> 187 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed A mandatory minimum of 3 abnormal items 3.4 Normal and abnormal operations of following systems: M shall be selected from 3.4.0 to 3.4.14 inclusive OTD 3.4.0 Engine (if necessary propeller) -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.1 Pressurisation and air conditioning -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.2 Pitot/static system -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.3 Fuel system -----> P-----> 188 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed OTD 3.4.4 Electrical system -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.5 Hydraulic system -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.6 Flight control and trim system -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.7 Anti-icing/de-icing system, glare shield heating -----> P-----> M OTD 3.4.8 Autopilot/flight director -----> (single P-----> pilot only) 189 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed OTD 3.4.9 Stall warning devices or stall avoidance devices, and stability augmentation devices -----> P-----> 3.4.10 Ground proximity warning system, weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder P-----> -----> OTD 3.4.11 Radios, navigation equipment, instruments, FMS -----> P-----> OTD 3.4.12 Landing gear and brake -----> P-----> 3.4.13 Slat and flap system OTD -----> OTD 3.4.14 Auxiliary power unit (APU) -----> P-----> Intentionally left blank 190 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be 3.6 Abnormal and emergency procedures: M selected from 3.6.1 to 3.6.9 inclusive 3.6.1 Fire drills, e.g. engine, APU, cabin, cargo compartment, flight deck, wing and electrical fires P-----> -----> including evacuation 3.6.2 Smoke control and removal P-----> -----> 3.6.3 Engine failures, shutdown and restart at a safe height P-----> -----> 3.6.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P-----> -----> 3.6.5 Wind shear at take-off/landing P X FFS only 191 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.6.6 Simulated cabin pressure failure/emergency descent P-----> -----> 3.6.7 Incapacitation of flight crew member P-----> -----> 3.6.8 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate aeroplane flight manual (AFM) P-----> -----> An aeropla OTD ne 3.6.9 TCAS event FFS only P-----> shall not be used 192 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.7 Upset recovery training 3.7.1 Recovery from stall events in: — take-off configuration; P-----> -----> — clean configuration at low altitude; — clean configuration near maximum operating altitude; and — landing configuration. X P An 3.7.2 The following upset exercises: FFS aeropla — recovery from nose-high at various bank angles; and qualified ne shall for the not be FFS only — recovery from nose-low at various bank angles training used for task only this exercise 3.8 Instrument flight procedures 193 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.8.1 * Adherence to departure and arrival routes and ATC instructions P-----> -----> M 3.8.2* Holding procedures P-----> -----> 3.8.3* 3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the approach procedure Note: According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taking into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 3.9.3.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). M 3.8.3. *Manually, without flight director P-----> -----> (skill test only) 3.8.3.2 *Manually, with flight director P-----> -----> 3.83.3 *With autopilot P-----> -----> 194 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.8.3.4 * Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure. In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/ FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with P-----> -----> M the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published obstacle clearance height/altitude (OCH/A); however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. 195 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.8.3.5 *Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach after passing the outer marker (OM) within a distance of not more than 4 NM until touchdown or through the complete missed approach procedure In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as P-----> -----> M commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the approach with simulated engine failure and the ensuing go-around shall be initiated in conjunction with the non-precision approach as described in 3.8.4. The go-around shall be initiated when reaching the published OCH/A; however, not later than reaching an MDH/A of 500 ft above the runway threshold elevation. In aeroplanes having the same performance as a transport category aeroplane regarding take-off mass and density altitude, the instructor may simulate the engine failure in accordance with 3.8.3.4. 3.8.4* 2D operations down to the MDH/A P*---> -----> M 196 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 3.8.5 Circling approach under the following conditions: (a)* approach to the authorised minimum circling approach altitude at the aerodrome in question in accordance with the local instrument approach facilities in simulated instrument flight conditions; followed by: P*---> -----> (b) circling approach to another runway at least 90° off centreline from the final approach used in item (a), at the authorised minimum circling approach altitude. Remark: If (a) and (b) are not possible due to ATC reasons, a simulated low visibility pattern may be performed. 3.8.6 Visual approaches P----> -----> SECTION 4 4 Missed approach procedures 4.1 Go-around with all engines operating* during a 3D operation on reaching decision height P*---> -----> 197 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 4.2 Go-around with all engines operating* from various stages during an instrument approach P*---> -----> 4.3 Other missed approach procedures P*---> -----> 4.4* Manual go-around with the critical engine simulated inoperative after an instrument P*-----> -----> M approach on reaching DH, MDH or MAPt 4.5 Rejected landing with all engines operating: — from various heights below DH/MDH; — after touchdown (baulked landing) P-----> -----> In aeroplanes which are not certificated as transport category aeroplanes (JAR/FAR 25) or as commuter category aeroplanes (SFAR 23), the rejected landing with all engines operating shall be initiated below MDH/A or after touchdown. SECTION 5 198 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 5 Landings 5.1 Normal landings* with visual reference established when reaching DA/H following an P instrument approach operation An aeropla ne shall 5.2 Landing with simulated jammed horizontal stabiliser in any out-of-trim position P-----> not be FFS only used for this exercise 5.3 Crosswind landings (aircraft, if practicable) P-----> -----> 5.4 Traffic pattern and landing without extended or with partly extended flaps and slats P-----> -----> 5.5 Landing with critical engine simulated inoperative P-----> -----> M 199 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 5.6 Landing with two engines inoperative: M — aeroplanes with three engines: the centre engine and one outboard engine as far as FFS only P X practicable according to data of the AFM; and (skill test — aeroplanes with four engines: two engines at one side only) General remarks: Special requirements for the extension of a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 200 ft (60 m), i.e. CAT II/III operations. SECTION 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures, all aeroplane equipment required for type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 200 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 6.1* Rejected take-off at minimum authorised runway visual range (RVR) ---->X An aeropla ne P*-----> shall M* not be used for this exercis e 6.2* CAT II/III approaches: in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight guidance P-----> -----> M system. Standard procedures of crew coordination (task sharing, call-out procedures, mutual surveillance, information exchange and support) shall be observed. 201 of 262  ATPL/MPL/TYPE RATING SKILL MULTI-PILOT AEROPLANES AND SINGLE-PILOT HIGH-PERFORMANCE COMPLEX AEROPLANES PRACTICAL TRAINING TEST OR PROF. CHECK Instructor initials Tested or Examiner initials Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD A when checked in when test or training FSTD or A check completed completed 6.3* Go-around: after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training shall also include a go-around due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aeroplane deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, ground/airborne P-----> -----> M* equipment failure prior to reaching DH, and go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure. 6.4* Landing(s): with visual reference established at DH following an instrument approach. Depending on the P-----> -----> M specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. NOTE: CAT II/III operations shall be performed in accordance with the applicable air operations requirements. 202 of 262 7. Class ratings — sea Section 6 shall be completed to revalidate a multi-engine class rating sea, VFR only, where the required experience of 10 route sectors within the previous 12 months has not been completed. CLASS RATING SKILL TEST OR CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Instructor’s initials when training Examiner’s initials when test completed completed SECTION 1 1 Departure 1.1 Preflight including: — documentation; — mass and balance; — weather briefing; and — NOTAM. 1.2 Pre-start checks External/internal 1.3 Engine start-up and shutdown Normal malfunctions 1.4 Taxiing 1.5 Step taxiing 1.6 Mooring: Beach Jetty pier Buoy 1.7 Engine-off sailing 1.8 Pre-departure checks: Engine run-up (if applicable) 203 of 262  CLASS RATING SKILL TEST OR CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Instructor’s initials when training Examiner’s initials when test completed completed 1.9 Take-off procedure: — normal with flight manual flap settings; and — crosswind (if conditions are available). 1.10 Climbing: — turns onto headings — level off 1.11 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 2 2 Airwork (VFR) 2.1 Straight and level flight at various airspeeds including flight at critically low airspeed with and without flaps (including approach to VMCA when applicable) 2.2 Steep turns (360° left and right at 45° bank) 204 of 262  CLASS RATING SKILL TEST OR CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Instructor’s initials when training Examiner’s initials when test completed completed 2.3 Stalls and recovery: (i) clean stall; (ii) approach to stall in descending turn with bank with approach configuration and power; (iii) approach to stall in landing configuration and power; and (iv) approach to stall, climbing turn with take- off flap and climb power (single-engine aeroplanes only). 2.4 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 3 3 En route procedures VFR 3.1 Flight plan, dead reckoning and map reading 3.2 Maintenance of altitude, heading and speed 3.3 Orientation, timing and revision of ETAs 3.4 Use of radio navigation aids (if applicable) 3.5 Flight management (flight log, routine checks including fuel, systems and icing) 205 of 262  CLASS RATING SKILL TEST OR CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Instructor’s initials when training Examiner’s initials when test completed completed 3.6 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 4 4 Arrivals and landings 4.1 Aerodrome arrival procedure (amphibians only) 4.2 Normal landing 4.3 Flapless landing 4.4 Crosswind landing (if suitable conditions) 4.5 Approach and landing with idle power from up to 2 000´ above the water (single-engine aeroplanes only) 4.6 Go-around from minimum height 4.7 Glassy water landing Rough water landing 4.8 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 5 5 Abnormal and emergency procedures (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 4.) 5.1 Rejected take-off at a reasonable speed 206 of 262  CLASS RATING SKILL TEST OR CLASS RATING SEA PRACTICAL TRAINING PROFICIENCY CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Instructor’s initials when training Examiner’s initials when test completed completed 5.2 Simulated engine failure after take-off (single-engine aeroplanes only) 5.3 Simulated forced landing without power (single-engine aeroplanes only) 5.4 Simulated emergencies: (i) fire or smoke in flight; and (ii) systems’ malfunctions as appropriate. 5.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures SECTION 6 6 Simulated asymmetric flight (This section may be combined with Sections 1 through 5.) 6.1 Simulated engine failure during take-off (at a safe altitude unless carried out in an FFS and an FNPT II) 6.2 Engine shutdown and restart (ME skill test only) 6.3 Asymmetric approach and go- around 6.4 Asymmetric approach and full- stop landing 207 of 262 6.5 ATC liaison — compliance, R/T procedures C. Specific requirements for the helicopter category 1. In the case of skill test or proficiency check for type ratings and the ATPL, applicants shall pass Sections 1 to 4 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing not more than five items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a retest or a recheck or failure in any other items already passed will require the applicants to repeat the entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months. 2. In the case of proficiency check for an IR, applicants shall pass Section 5 of the proficiency check. Failure in more than 3 items will require applicants to repeat the entire Section 5. Applicants failing not more than 3 items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a recheck or failure in any other items of Section 5 already passed will require applicants to repeat the entire check. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE 3. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the helicopter within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; (e) maintain control of the helicopter at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt; (f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures, if applicable; and (g) communicate effectively with the other crew members, if applicable. 4. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the helicopter used. (a) IFR flight limits Height Generally ±100 ft Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/–0 ft Minimum descent height/MAPt/altitude +50 ft/–0 ft Tracking On radio aids ±5° 208 of 262  For ‘angular’ deviations Half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path (e.g. LPV, ILS, MLS, GLS) 2D (LNAV) and 3D (LNAV/VNAV) ‘linear’ lateral cross-track error/deviation shall normally deviations be limited to ±½ of the RNP value associated with the procedure. Brief deviations from this standard up to a maximum of one time the RNP value are allowable. 3D linear vertical deviations (e.g. RNP APCH not more than –75 ft below the vertical (LNAV/VNAV) using BaroVNAV) profile at any time, and not more than +75 ft above the vertical profile at or below 1 000 ft above aerodrome level. Heading all engines operating ±5° with simulated engine failure ±10° Speed all engines operating ±5 knots with simulated engine failure +10 knots/–5 knots (b) VFR flight limits Height Generally ±100 ft Heading Normal operations ±5° Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10° Speed Generally ±10 knots With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots Ground drift T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 ft Landing ±2 ft (with 0 ft rearward or lateral flight) CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK GENERAL 5. The following symbol means: P= Trained as PIC for the issue of a type rating for single-pilot helicopters (SPH) or trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating for multi pilot helicopters (MPH). 6. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->). 209 of 262  The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: FFS = full-flight simulator FTD = flight training device H= helicopter 7. The starred items (*) shall be flown in actual or simulated IMC, only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. 8. Instrument flight procedures (Section 5) shall be performed only by applicants wishing to renew or revalidate an IR(H) or extend the privileges of that rating to another type. An FFS or an FTD 2/3 may be used for this purpose. 9. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise. 10. An FSTD shall be used for practical training and testing if the FSTD forms part of a type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the course: (a) the qualification of the FSTD as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); (b) the qualifications of the instructor and examiner; (c) the amount of FSTD training provided on the course; (d) the qualifications and previous experience in similar types of the pilots under training; and (e) the amount of supervised flying experience provided after the issue of the new type rating. MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS 11. Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating and ATPL(H) shall pass only Sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, Section 6. 12. Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the multi-pilot helicopter type rating proficiency check shall pass only Sections 1 to 4 and, if applicable, Section 6. 210 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed SECTION 1 — Preflight preparations and checks 1.1 Helicopter exterior visual inspection; M (if performed in location of each item and purpose of P the helicopter) inspection 1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- M 1.3 Starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection P ---- M and setting of navigation and communication frequencies 1.4 Taxiing/air taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions or with instructions of P ---- M an instructor 1.5 Pre-take-off procedures and checks P ---- M SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures 2.1 Take-offs (various profiles) P ---- M 211 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed Sloping ground or crosswind take-offs & 2.2 P ---- landings Take-off at maximum take-off mass 2.3 (actual or simulated maximum take-off P ---- mass) 2.4 Take-off with simulated engine failure P ---- M shortly before reaching TDP or DPATO 2.4.1 Take-off with simulated engine failure P ---- M shortly after reaching TDP or DPATO 2.5 Climbing and descending turns to P ---- M specified headings 2.5.1 Turns with 30° bank, 180°to 360° left and right, by sole reference to P ---- M instruments 2.6 Autorotative descent P ---- M 212 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 2.6.1 For single-engine helicopters (SEH) autorotative landing or for multi-engine P ---- M helicopters (MEH) power recovery 2.7 Landings, various profiles P ---- M 2.7.1 Go-around or landing following simulated engine failure before LDP or P ---- M DPBL 2.7.2 Landing following simulated engine P ---- M failure after LDP or DPBL SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the M A mandatory minimum following systems and procedures: of 3 items shall be selected from this section 3.1 Engine P ---- 3.2 Air conditioning (heating, ventilation) P ---- 213 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 3.3 Pitot/static system P ---- 3.4 Fuel system P ---- 3.5 Electrical system P ---- 3.6 Hydraulic system P ---- 3.7 Flight control and trim system P ---- 3.8 Anti-icing and de-icing system P ---- 3.9 Autopilot/flight director P --- 3.10 Stability augmentation devices P ---- 3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, P ---- transponder 3.12 Area navigation system P ---- 214 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 3.13 Landing gear system P ----- 3.14 APU P ---- 3.15 Radio, navigation equipment, P ---- instruments and FMS SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures 4 Abnormal and emergency procedures M A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be selected from this section 4.1 Fire drills (including evacuation if P ---- applicable) 4.2 Smoke control and removal P ---- 4.3 Engine failures, shutdown and restart P ---- at a safe height 215 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated) P ---- 4.5 Tail rotor control failure (if applicable) P ---- 4.5.1 Tail rotor loss (if applicable) A helicopter shall not P be used for this exercise 4.6 Incapacitation of crew member — MPH P ---- only 4.7 Transmission malfunctions P ---- 4.8 Other emergency procedures as outlined in the appropriate flight P ---- manual SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC) 216 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 5.1 Instrument take-off: transition to instrument flight is required as soon as P* ----* possible after becoming airborne 5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during P* ----* M* departure 5.2 Adherence to departure and arrival P* ----* M* routes and ATC instructions 5.3 Holding procedures P* ----* 5.4 3D operations to DH/A of 200 ft (60 m) or to higher minima if required by the P* ----* approach procedure 217 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed 5.4.1 Manually, without flight director. P* ----* M* Note: According to the AFM, RNP APCH procedures may require the use of autopilot or flight director. The procedure to be flown manually shall be chosen taken into account such limitations (for example, choose an ILS for 5.4.1 in the case of such AFM limitation). 5.4.2 Manually, with flight director P* ----* M* 5.4.3 With coupled autopilot P* ----* Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be 5.4.4 simulated during final approach before P* ----* M* passing 1 000 ft above aerodrome level until touchdown or until completion of the missed approach procedure 5.5 2D operations down to the MDA/H P* ----* M* 218 of 262 SINGLE/MULTI-PILOT HELICOPTERS PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor initials when training Checked in Examiner initials when Manoeuvres/procedures FSTD H completed FSTD or H test completed Go-around with all engines operating on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH P* ----* 5.6 5.6.1 Other missed approach procedures P* ----* Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative on reaching DA/H or P* ----* M* 5.6.2 MDA/MDH 5.7 IMC autorotation with power recovery P* ----* M* 5.8 Recovery from unusual attitudes P* ----* M* SECTION 6 — Use of optional equipment 6 Use of optional equipment P ---- 219 of 262 D. Specific requirements for the powered-lift aircraft category 1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for powered-lift aircraft type ratings, applicants shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing not more than five items shall repeat the failed items. Failure in any item in the case of a retest or a recheck or failure in any other items already passed will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE 2. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the powered-lift aircraft within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; (e) maintain control of the powered-lift aircraft at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt; (f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and (g) communicate effectively with the other crew members. 3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the powered-lift aircraft used. (a) IFR flight limits Height Generally ±100 ft Starting a go-around at decision +50 ft/-0 ft height/altitude Minimum descent height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft Tracking On radio aids ±5° Precision approach half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path 220 of 262  Heading Normal operations ±5° Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10° Speed Generally ±10 knots With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots (b) VFR flight limits: Height Generally ±100 ft Heading Normal operations ±5° Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10° Speed Generally ±10 knots With simulated engine failure +10 knots/-5 knots Ground drift T.O. hover I.G.E. ±3 ft Landing ±2 ft (with 0 ft rearward or lateral flight) CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK 4. The following symbol means: P= Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable 5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->). 6. The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: 221 of 262  FFS = full-flight simulator FTD = flight training device OTD = other training device PL = powered-lift aircraft (a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the powered-lift aircraft type rating shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable, Section 6. (b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the powered-lift aircraft type rating proficiency check shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable, Section 6 and/or Section 7. (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only. 7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise. 8. FSTDs shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of an approved type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the approval of the course: (a) the qualification of the FSTDs as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); and (b) the qualifications of the instructor. 222 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL SECTION 1 — Preflight preparations and checks 1.1 Powered-lift aircraft exterior visual inspection; location of each item and purpose of P inspection 1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- ---- ---- 1.3 Starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection and setting of navigation and communication frequencies P ---- ---- ---- M 1.4 Taxiing in compliance with ATC instructions P ---- ---- or with instructions of an instructor 1.5 Pre-take-off procedures and checks including P ---- ---- ---- M power check 223 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures 2.1 Normal VFR take-off profiles: Runway operations (short take-off and landing (STOL) and vertical take-off and landing (VTOL)) including crosswind P ---- ---- M Elevated heliports Ground level heliports 2.2 Take-off at maximum take-off mass (actual or P ---- simulated maximum take-off mass) 2.3.1 Rejected take-off: — during runway operations; — during elevated heliport operations; P ---- M and — during ground level operations. 224 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 2.3.2 Take-off with simulated engine failure after passing decision point: — during runway operations; P ---- M — during elevated heliport operations; and — during ground level operations. 2.4 Autorotative descent in helicopter mode to M ground (an aircraft shall not be used for this P ---- ---- FFS exercise) only 2.4.1 Windmill descent in aeroplane mode (an M aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) P ---- FFS only 2.5 Normal VFR landing profiles: runway operations (STOL and VTOL) P ---- ---- M elevated heliports ground level heliports 225 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 2.5.1 Landing with simulated engine failure after reaching decision point: — during runway operations; — during elevated heliport operations; and — during ground level operations. 2.6 Go-around or landing following simulated P ---- M engine failure before decision point SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures: 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the M A mandatory minimum following systems and procedures (may be of 3 items shall be completed in an FSTD if qualified for the selected from this exercise): section 3.1 Engine P ---- ---- 3.2 Pressurisation and air conditioning (heating, P ---- ---- ventilation) 226 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 3.3 Pitot/static system P ---- ---- 3.4 Fuel system P ---- ---- 3.5 Electrical system P ---- ---- 3.6 Hydraulic system P ---- ---- 3.7 Flight control and trim system P ---- ---- 3.8 Anti-icing and de-icing system, glare shield P ---- ---- heating (if fitted) 3.9 Autopilot/flight director P --- --- 3.10 Stall warning devices or stall avoidance P ---- ---- devices and stability augmentation devices 3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder, P ---- ---- ground proximity warning system (if fitted) 227 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 3.12 Landing gear system P ----- ----- 3.13 APU P ---- ---- 3.14 Radio, navigation equipment, instruments P ---- ---- and FMS 3.15 Flap system P ---- ---- SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures 4 Abnormal and emergency procedures A mandatory minimum of 3 items shall be (may be completed in an FSTD if qualified for M selected from this the exercise) section 4.1 Fire drills, engine, APU, cargo compartment, flight deck and electrical fires including P ---- ---- evacuation if applicable 4.2 Smoke control and removal P ---- ---- 228 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 4.3 Engine failures, shutdown and restart (an aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) FFS including one engine inoperative conversion P ---- ---- only from helicopter to aeroplane modes and vice versa 4.4 Fuel dumping (simulated, if fitted) P ---- ---- 4.5 Wind shear at take-off and landing (an FFS aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) P only 4.6 Simulated cabin pressure failure/emergency FFS descent (an aircraft shall not be used for this P ---- ---- exercise) only 4.7 ACAS event FFS P ---- ---- (an aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) only 4.8 Incapacitation of crew member P ---- ---- 229 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 4.9 Transmission malfunctions FFS P ---- ---- only 4.10 Recovery from a full stall (power on and off) or after activation of stall warning devices in FFS P ---- ---- climb, cruise and approach configurations (an only aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) 4.11 Other emergency procedures as detailed in P ---- ---- the appropriate flight manual SECTION 5 — Instrument flight procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC) 5.1 Instrument take-off: transition to instrument flight is required as soon as possible after P* ----* ----* becoming airborne 5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during departure P* ----* ----* M* after decision point 230 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 5.2 Adherence to departure and arrival routes P* ----* ----* M* and ATC instructions 5.3 Holding procedures P* ----* ----* 5.4 Precision approach down to a decision height P* ----* ----* not less than 60 m (200 ft) 5.4.1 Manually, without flight director M* (Skill P* ----* ----* test only) 5.4.2 Manually, with flight director P* ----* ----* 5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ----* ----* 5.4.4 Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before P* ----* ----* M* passing the OM and continued either to touchdown or until completion of the missed approach procedure 231 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 5.5 Non-precision approach down to the MDA/H P* ----* ----* M* 5.6 Go-around with all engines operating on P* ----* ----* reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH 5.6.1 Other missed approach procedures P* ----* ----* 5.6.2 Go-around with one engine simulated P* M* inoperative on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH 5.7 IMC autorotation with power recovery to M* land on runway in helicopter mode only (an P* ----* ----* aircraft shall not be used for this exercise) FFS only 5.8 Recovery from unusual attitudes (this one P* ----* ----* M* depends on the quality of the FFS) SECTION 6 — Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) 232 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (CAT II/III). The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures, all powered-lift aircraft equipment required for the type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1 Rejected take-off at minimum authorised P ---- M* RVR 6.2 ILS approaches: in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight P ---- ---- M* guidance system. Standard operating procedures (SOPs) of crew coordination shall be observed. 233 of 262  POWERED-LIFT AIRCRAFT CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY CHECK Instructor’s initials Checked in Examiner’s initials when Manoeuvres/procedures when training FFS PL test completed completed OTD FTD FFS PL 6.3 Go-around: after approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training shall also include a go-around due to (simulated) insufficient RVR, wind shear, aircraft deviation in excess P ---- ---- M* of approach limits for a successful approach, ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH, and go-around with simulated airborne equipment failure. 6.4 Landing(s): with visual reference established at DH following an instrument approach. P ---- M* Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed. Section 7 — Optional equipment 7 Use of optional equipment P ---- ---- 234 of 262 E. Specific requirements for the airship category 1. In the case of skill tests or proficiency checks for airship type ratings, applicants shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and 6 (as applicable) of the skill test or proficiency check. Failure in more than five items will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check. Applicants failing not more than five items shall take the failed items again. Failure in any item in the case of a retest or a recheck, or failure in any other items already passed will require applicants to repeat the entire test or check again. All sections of the skill test or proficiency check shall be completed within 6 months. FLIGHT TEST TOLERANCE 2. Applicants shall demonstrate the ability to: (a) operate the airship within its limitations; (b) complete all manoeuvres with smoothness and accuracy; (c) exercise good judgement and airmanship; (d) apply aeronautical knowledge; (e) maintain control of the airship at all times in such a manner that the successful outcome of a procedure or manoeuvre is never in doubt; (f) understand and apply crew coordination and incapacitation procedures; and (g) communicate effectively with the other crew members. 3. The following limits shall apply, corrected to make allowance for turbulent conditions and the handling qualities and performance of the airship used. (a) IFR flight limits: Height Generally ±100 ft Starting a go-around at decision height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft Minimum descent height/altitude +50 ft/-0 ft Tracking On radio aids ±5° Precision approach half-scale deflection, azimuth and glide path Heading Normal operations ±5° Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10° 235 of 262  (b) VFR flight limits: Height Generally ±100 ft Heading Normal operations ±5° Abnormal operations/emergencies ±10° CONTENT OF THE TRAINING/SKILL TEST/PROFICIENCY CHECK 4. The following symbol means: P= Trained as PIC or co-pilot and as PF and PM for the issue of a type rating as applicable. 5. The practical training shall be conducted at least at the training equipment level shown as (P), or may be conducted up to any higher equipment level shown by the arrow (---->). 6 The following abbreviations are used to indicate the training equipment used: FFS = full-flight simulator FTD = flight training device OTD = other training device As = airship (a) Applicants for the skill test for the issue of the airship shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable, Section 6. (b) Applicants for the revalidation or renewal of the airship type rating proficiency check shall pass Sections 1 to 5 and, if applicable Section 6. (c) The starred items (*) shall be flown solely by reference to instruments. If this condition is not met during the skill test or proficiency check, the type rating will be restricted to VFR only. 7. Where the letter ‘M’ appears in the skill test or proficiency check column, this will indicate a mandatory exercise. 8. FSTDs shall be used for practical training and testing if they form part of a type rating course. The following considerations will apply to the course: (a) the qualification of the FSTDs as set out in the relevant requirements of Annex VI (Part-ARA) and Annex VII (Part-ORA); and (b) the qualifications of the instructor. 236 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed SECTION 1 — Preflight preparations and checks 1.1 Preflight inspection P 1.2 Cockpit inspection P ---- ---- ---- 1.3 Starting procedures, radio and navigation equipment check, selection P ---- ---- M and setting of navigation and communication frequencies 1.4 Off-mast procedure and ground P ---- M manoeuvring 1.5 Pre-take-off procedures and checks P ---- ---- ---- M SECTION 2 — Flight manoeuvres and procedures 2.1 Normal VFR take-off profile P ---- M 237 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 2.2 Take-off with simulated engine failure P ---- M 2.3 Take-off with heaviness > 0 (Heavy T/O) P ---- 2.4 Take-off with heaviness < 0 (Light/TO) P ---- 2.5 Normal climb procedure P ---- 2.6 Climb to pressure height P ---- 2.7 Recognising of pressure height P ---- 2.8 Flight at or close to pressure height P ---- M 2.9 Normal descent and approach P ---- 2.10 Normal VFR landing profile P ---- M 2.11 Landing with heaviness > 0 (Heavy Ldg.) P ---- M 238 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 2.12 Landing with heaviness < 0 (Light Ldg.) P ---- M Intentionally left blank SECTION 3 — Normal and abnormal operations of the following systems and procedures 3 Normal and abnormal operations of the A mandatory following systems and procedures (may minimum of 3 be completed in an FSTD if qualified for M items shall be the exercise): selected from this section 3.1 Engine P ---- ---- ---- 3.2 Envelope pressurisation P ---- ---- ---- 3.3 Pitot/static system P ---- ---- ---- 3.4 Fuel system P ---- ---- ---- 3.5 Electrical system P ---- ---- ---- 239 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 3.6 Hydraulic system P ---- ---- ---- 3.7 Flight control and trim system P ---- ---- ---- 3.8 Ballonet system P ---- ---- ---- 3.9 Autopilot/flight director P --- --- ---- 3.10 Stability augmentation devices P ---- ---- ---- 3.11 Weather radar, radio altimeter, transponder, ground P ---- ---- ---- proximity warning system (if fitted) 3.12 Landing gear system P ----- ----- ---- 3.13 APU P ---- ---- ---- 3.14 Radio, navigation equipment, P ---- ---- ---- instruments and FMS 240 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed Intentionally left blank SECTION 4 — Abnormal and emergency procedures 4 Abnormal and emergency procedures A mandatory minimum of (may be completed in an FSTD if three items qualified for the exercise) M shall be selected from this section 4.1 Fire drills, engine, APU, cargo compartment, flight deck and electrical P ---- ---- ---- fires, including evacuation if applicable 4.2 Smoke control and removal P ---- ---- ---- 4.3 Engine failures, shutdown and restart: in particular phases of flight, inclusive P ---- ---- ---- multiple engine failure 4.4 Incapacitation of crew member P ---- ---- ---- 241 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 4.5 Transmission/gearbox malfunctions P ---- ---- ---- FFS only 4.6 Other emergency procedures as outlined P ---- ---- ---- in the appropriate flight manual SECTION 5 — Instrument Flight Procedures (to be performed in IMC or simulated IMC) 5.1 Instrument take-off: transition to instrument flight is required as soon as P* ----* ----* ----* possible after becoming airborne 5.1.1 Simulated engine failure during P* ----* ----* ----* M* departure 5.2 Adherence to departure and arrival P* ----* ----* ----* M* routes and ATC instructions 5.3 Holding procedures P* ----* ----* ----* 5.4 Precision approach down to a decision P* ----* ----* ----* height not less than 60 m (200 ft) 242 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 5.4.1 Manually, without flight director M* P* ----* ----* ----* (Skill test only) 5.4.2 Manually, with flight director P* ----* ----* ----* 5.4.3 With use of autopilot P* ----* ----* ----* 5.4.4 Manually, with one engine simulated inoperative; engine failure has to be simulated during final approach before passing the OM and continued to P* ----* ----* ----* M* touchdown or until completion of the missed approach procedure 5.5 Non-precision approach down to the P* ----* ----* ----* M* MDA/H 243 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 5.6 Go-around with all engines operating on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH P* ----* ----* ----* 5.6.1 Other missed approach procedures P* ----* ----* ----* 5.6.2 Go-around with one engine simulated inoperative on reaching DA/H or MDA/MDH P* M* 5.7 Recovery from unusual attitudes (this one depends on the quality of the FFS) P* ----* ----* ----* M* 244 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed SECTION 6 — Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III) 6 Additional authorisation on a type rating for instrument approaches down to a decision height of less than 60 m (200 ft) (CAT II/III). The following manoeuvres and procedures are the minimum training requirements to permit instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft). During the following instrument approaches and missed approach procedures, all airship equipment required for the type certification of instrument approaches down to a DH of less than 60 m (200 ft) shall be used. 6.1 Rejected take-off at minimum authorised P ---- M* RVR 245 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 6.2 ILS approaches: in simulated instrument flight conditions down to the applicable DH, using flight P ---- M* guidance system. SOPs of crew coordination shall be observed. 6.3 Go-around After approaches as indicated in 6.2 on reaching DH. The training shall also include a go- around due to (simulated) insufficient P ---- M* RVR, wind shear, aircraft deviation in excess of approach limits for a successful approach, ground/airborne equipment failure prior to reaching DH and, go- around with simulated airborne equipment failure. 246 of 262  SKILL TEST OR PROFICIENCY AIRSHIP CATEGORY PRACTICAL TRAINING CHECK Manoeuvres/procedures Checked in Examiner’s Instructor’s initials when initials when training completed OTD FTD FFS As FFS As test completed 6.4 Landing(s): with visual reference established at DH following an instrument approach. P ---- M* Depending on the specific flight guidance system, an automatic landing shall be performed SECTION 7 — Optional equipment 7 Use of optional equipment P ---- 247 of 262  ANNEX II CONDITIONS FOR THE CONVERSION OF EXISTING NATIONAL LICENCES AND RATINGS FOR AEROPLANES AND HELICOPTERS A. AEROPLANES 1. Pilot licences Pilot licences issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into Part-FCL licences, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: (a) for ATPL(A) and CPL(A), pass as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of Part-FCL for type/class and instrument rating, relevant to the privileges of the licence held; (b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-FCL; (c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; and (d) comply with the requirements set out in the following table: National licence Total flying Any further Part-FCL licence Removal of held hours requirements and conditions conditions experience (where applicable) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) ATPL(A) > 1 500 as PIC None ATPL(A) Not applicable (a) in multi-pilot aeroplanes ATPL(A) > 1 500 on None as in (c)(4) as in (c)(5) (b) multi-pilot aeroplanes ATPL(A) > 500 on multi- Demonstrate knowledge of ATPL(A), with type Demonstrate the (c) pilot aeroplanes flight planning and rating restricted ability to act as PIC performance as required by to co-pilot as required by FCL.515 Appendix 9 to Part- FCL CPL/IR(A) and passed (i)demonstrate knowledge CPL/IR(A) with Not applicable (d) an ICAO ATPL theory of flight planning and ATPL theory credit test in the Member performance as required State that issued the by FCL.310 and licence FCL.615(b) (ii)meet remaining requirements in FCL.720.A(c). CPL/IR(A) > 500 on multi-pilot (i)pass an examination CPL/IR(A) with Not applicable (e) aeroplanes or in multi- ATPL theory 248 of 262  pilot operations on for ATPL(A) credit single-pilot aeroplanes knowledge in the CS-23 commuter Member State that category or equivalent issued the licence (1) in accordance with the (ii)meet remaining relevant requirements requirements in of Part-CAT and Part- FCL.720.A(c) ORO for commercial air transport CPL/IR(A) > 500 as PIC in single- None CPL/IR(A) with Obtain multi-pilot (f) pilot aeroplanes class ratings and type rating in type ratings accordance with restricted to Part-FCL single-pilot aeroplanes CPL/IR(A) < 500 as PIC in single- Demonstrate As (4)(f) As (5)(f) (g) pilot aeroplanes knowledge of flight planning and flight performance for CPL/IR level CPL(A) > 500 as PIC in single- Night rating, if CPL(A), with (h) pilot aeroplanes applicable type/class ratings restricted to single-pilot aeroplanes CPL(A) < 500 as PIC in single- (i)Night rating, if as (4)(h) (i) pilot aeroplanes applicable; (ii)demonstrate knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.310. PPL/IR(A) ≥ 75 in accordance with PPL/IR(A) (the IR Demonstrate (j) IFR restricted to PPL) knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.615(b) PPL(A) ≥ 70 on aeroplanes Demonstrate the use PPL(A) (k) of radio navigation aids (1) CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot aeroplane are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(A) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same aeroplane type, but will not be given ATPL(A) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot aeroplane, they must comply with column (3), row (e)(i) of the table above. 249 of 262 2. Instructor certificates An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: National certificate Experience Any further Part-FCL certificate or privileges held requirements (1) (2) (3) (4) FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CR as required under N/A FI(A)/IRI(A)/TRI(A)/CR I(A) Part-FCL for the I(A) relevant certificate 3. SFI certificate An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: National certificate Experience Any further Part-FCL certificate held requirements (1) (2) (3) (4) SFI(A) >1 500 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held SFI(A) of MPA a CPL, an MPL or an ATPL for aeroplanes issued by a Member State; (ii) have completed the flight simulator content of the applicable type rating course including MCC. SFI(A) 3 years of recent have completed the SFI(A) experience as an SFI flight simulator content of the applicable type rating course including MCC The conversion shall be valid for a maximum period of 3 years. Revalidation shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL. 250 of 262 4. STI certificate An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of that State may be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: National certificate Experience Any further Replacement held requirements certificate (1) (2) (3) (4) STI(A) > 500 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held STI(A) on SPA a pilot licence issued by a Member State; (ii) have passed a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part- FCL in an FSTD appropriate to the instruction intended STI(A) 3 years recent have passed a STI(A) experience as an STI proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part- FCL in an FSTD appropriate to the instruction intended Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL. B. HELICOPTERS 1. Pilot licences Pilot licences issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into Part-FCL licences, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: (a) complete as a proficiency check the revalidation requirements of Part-FCL for type and instrument rating, relevant to the privileges of the licence held; (b) demonstrate knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-FCL; (c) demonstrate language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; and (d) comply with the requirements set out in the following table: 251 of 262 National licence Total flying Any further Replacement Part-FCL Removal of held hours requirements licence and conditions conditions experience (where applicable) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) ATPL(H) valid >1 000 as PIC in none ATPL(H) and IR Not applicable (a) IR(H) multi-pilot helicopters ATPL(H) no >1 000 as PIC in none ATPL(H) (b) IR(H) privileges multi-pilot helicopters ATPL(H) valid >1 000 on None ATPL(H), and IR with Demonstrate the (c) IR(H) multi-pilot type rating restricted to ability to act as PIC helicopters co-pilot as required by Appendix 9 to Part- FCL ATPL(H) no >1 000 on None ATPL(H) type rating Demonstrate the (d) IR(H) privileges multi-pilot restricted to co-pilot ability to act as PIC helicopters as required by Appendix 9 to Part- FCL ATPL(H) valid >500 on multi- demonstrate as (4)(c) as (5)(c) (e) IR(H) pilot knowledge of helicopters flight planning and flight performance as required by FCL.515 and FCL.615(b) ATPL(H) no >500 on multi- as (3)(e) as (4)(d) as (5)(d) (f) IR(H) privileges pilot helicopters 252 of 262 National licence Total flying Any further Replacement Part-FCL Removal of held hours requirements licence and conditions conditions experience (where applicable) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) CPL/IR(H) and (i) demonstrate CPL/IR(H) Not applicable (g) passed an ICAO knowledge of with ATPL(H) theory ATPL(H) theory flight planning credit, provided that test in the and flight the ICAO ATPL(H) Member State performance as theory test is assessed that issued the required by as being at Part-FCL licence FCL.310 and ATPL level FCL.615(b); and (ii) meet remaining requirements in FCL.720.H(b). CPL/IR(H) >500 on multi- (i) to pass an CPL/IR(H) Not applicable (h) pilot examination for with Part-FCL ATPL(H) helicopters Part-FCL theory credit ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge in the Member State that issued the licence *; and (ii) to meet remaining requirements in FCL.720.H (b). CPL/IR(H) >500 as PIC in None CPL/IR(H) with type (i) single-pilot ratings restricted to helicopters single-pilot helicopters CPL/IR(H) <500 as PIC in demonstrate as (4)(i) obtain multi-pilot (j) single-pilot knowledge of type rating as helicopters flight planning required by Part-FCL and flight performance as required by FCL.310 and FCL.615(b) 253 of 262  National licence Total flying Any further Replacement Part-FCL Removal of held hours requirements licence and conditions conditions experience (where applicable) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5) CPL(H) >500 as PIC in night rating CPL(H), with type (k) single-pilot ratings restricted to helicopters single-pilot helicopters CPL(H) <500 as PIC in night rating as (4) (k) (l) single-pilot demonstrate helicopters knowledge of flight performance and planning as required by FCL.310 CPL(H) >500 as PIC in As (4)(k) and restricted Obtain multi-pilot (m) single-pilot to day VFR operations type rating as Without night helicopters required by Part-FCL rating and a night rating. CPL(H) <500 as PIC in demonstrate As (4)(k) and restricted (n) single-pilot knowledge of to day VFR operations Without night helicopters flight planning rating and flight performance as required by FCL.310 PPL/IR(H) 75 in PPL/IR(H) (the IR demonstrate (o) accordance restricted to PPL) knowledge of flight with IFR performance and planning as required by FCL.615(b) PPL(H) 75 on demonstrate PPL (H) (p) helicopters the use of radio navigation aids *CPL holders already holding a type rating for a multi-pilot helicopter are not required to have passed an examination for ATPL(H) theoretical knowledge whilst they continue to operate that same helicopter type, but will not be given ATPL(H) theory credit for a Part-FCL licence. If they require another type rating for a different multi-pilot helicopter, they must comply with column (3), row (h)(i) of the table. 254 of 262 2. Instructor certificates An instructor certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: National certificate or Experience Any further Replacement certificate privileges held requirements (1) (2) (3) (4) FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H) as required under FI(H)/IRI(H)/TRI(H)* Part-FCL for the relevant certificate Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL. 3. SFI certificate An SFI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements shall be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: National certificate Experience Any further Replacement held requirements certificate (1) (2) (3) (4) SFI(H) >1 000 hours as pilot (i) hold or have held a SFI(H) of MPH CPL, MPL or ATPL issued by a Member State; (ii) have completed the flight simulator content of the applicable type rating course including MCC SFI(H) 3 years recent have completed the SFI(H) experience as an SFI simulator content of the applicable type rating course including MCC Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part-FCL. 255 of 262 4. STI certificate An STI certificate issued by a Member State in accordance with the national requirements of that State may be converted into a Part-FCL certificate, provided that applicants comply with the requirements set out in the table below: National certificate Experience Any further Replacement held requirements certificate (1) (2) (3) (4) STI(H) >500 hours as pilot on (i) hold or have held a STI(H) SPH pilot licence issued by a Member State; and (ii) have passed a proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part- FCL in an FSTD appropriate to the instruction intended. STI(H) 3 years recent have passed a STI(H) experience as an STI proficiency check in accordance with Appendix 9 to Part- FCL in an FSTD appropriate to the instruction intended Revalidation of the certificate shall be subject to the completion of the relevant requirements set out in Part- FCL. 256 of 262  ANNEX III CONDITIONS FOR THE ACCEPTANCE OF LICENCES ISSUED BY OR ON BEHALF OF THIRD COUNTRIES A. VALIDATION OF LICENCES General 1. Pilot licences issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be validated by the competent authority of a Member State. Pilots shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where they reside or are established. If they are not residing in the territory of a Member State, pilots shall apply to the competent authority of the Member State where the operator for which they are flying or intend to fly has its principal place of business, or where the aircraft on which they are flying or intend to fly is registered. 2. The period of validation of a licence shall not exceed 1 year, provided that the basic licence remains valid. This period may only be extended once by the competent authority that issued the validation when, during the validation period, pilots have applied, or are undergoing training, for the issue of a licence in accordance with Part-FCL. This extension shall cover the period of time necessary for the licence to be issued in accordance with Part-FCL and shall not exceed one year. Holders of a licence accepted by a Member State shall exercise their privileges in accordance with the requirements stated in Part-FCL. Pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities 3. In the case of pilot licences for commercial air transport and other commercial activities, holders shall comply with the following requirements: (a) complete, as a skill test, the type or class rating revalidation requirements of Part-FCL relevant to the privileges of the licence held; (b) demonstrate that they have acquired knowledge of the relevant parts of the operational requirements and Part-FCL; (c) demonstrate that they have acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; and (d) hold a valid Class 1 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-MED. In addition to the requirements in points (a) to (d), in the case of aeroplanes, applicants shall comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table: Licence held Total flying hours experience Privileges (1) (2) (3) ATPL(A) >1 500 hours as PIC in multi-pilot aeroplanes Commercial air transport in multi- (a) pilot aeroplanes as PIC ATPL(A) or CPL(A)/IR* >1 500 hours as PIC or co-pilot on multi-pilot Commercial air transport in multi- (b) 257 of 262  aeroplanes according to operational requirements pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot CPL(A)/IR >1 000 hours as PIC in commercial air transport Commercial air transport in single- (c) since obtaining an IR pilot aeroplanes as PIC CPL(A)/IR >1 000 hours as PIC or as co-pilot in single-pilot Commercial air transport in single- aeroplanes according to operational requirements pilot aeroplanes as co-pilot (d) according to operational requirements ATPL(A), CPLA(A)/IR, >700 hours in aeroplanes other than TMGs, Exercise of privileges in aeroplanes CPL(A) including 200 hours in the activity role for which in operations other than (e) acceptance is sought, and 50 hours in that role in commercial air transport the last 12 months CPL(A) >1 500 hours as PIC in commercial air transport Commercial air transport in single- (f) including 500 hours on seaplane operations pilot aeroplanes as PIC * CPL(A)/IR holders on multi-pilot aeroplanes shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL(A) level knowledge before acceptance. In addition to the requirements in points (a) to (d), in the case of helicopters, applicants shall comply with the experience requirements set out in the following table: Licence held Total flying hours experience Privileges (1) (2) (3) ATPL(H) valid IR > 1 000 hours as PIC in multi-pilot helicopters Commercial air transport in (a) multi-pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR and IFR operations ATPL(H) no IR > 1 000 hours as PIC in multi-pilot helicopters Commercial air transport in (b) privileges multi-pilot helicopters as PIC in VFR operations ATPL(H) valid IR > 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters Commercial air transport in (c) multi-pilot helicopters as co- pilot in VFR and IFR operations ATPL(H) no IR > 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters Commercial air transport in (d) privileges multi-pilot helicopters as co- pilot in VFR operations CPL(H)/IR* > 1 000 hours as pilot on multi-pilot helicopters Commercial air transport in (e) multi-pilot helicopters as co- pilot CPL(H)/IR > 1 000 hours as PIC in commercial air transport since Commercial air transport in (f) gaining an IR single-pilot helicopters as PIC ATPL(H) with or > 700 hours in helicopters other than those certificated Exercise of privileges in (g) without IR under CS-27/29 or equivalent, including 200 hours in the helicopters in operations privileges, activity role for which acceptance is sought, and other than commercial air CPL(H)/IR, CPL(H) 50 hours in that role in the last 12 months. transport 258 of 262 * CPL(H)/IR holders on multi-pilot helicopters shall have demonstrated ICAO ATPL level knowledge before acceptance. Pilot licences for non-commercial activities with an instrument rating 4. In the case of a PPL with an IR, or a CPL and an ATPL with an IR where pilots intend only to exercise private pilot privileges, holders shall comply with the following requirements: (a) pass the skill test for instrument rating and the type or class ratings relevant to the privileges of the licence held and including the IR exercises, in accordance with Appendix 7 and Appendix 9 to Part-FCL; (b) demonstrate that they have acquired knowledge of air law, aeronautical weather codes, flight planning and performance (IR), and human performance; (c) demonstrate that they have acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; (d) hold at least a valid Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and (e) have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours of instrument flight time as PIC in the relevant category of aircraft. Pilot licences for non-commercial activities without an instrument rating 5. In the case of a PPL or a CPL and an ATPL without an IR where pilots intend only to exercise private pilot privileges, holders shall comply with the following requirements: (a) demonstrate that they have acquired knowledge of air law and human performance; (b) pass the PPL skill test as set out in Part-FCL; (c) fulfil the relevant requirements of Part-FCL for the issue of a type or class rating as relevant to the privileges of the licence held; (d) hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; (e) demonstrate that they have acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; and (f) have a minimum experience of at least 100 hours as pilot in the relevant category of aircraft. Validation of pilot licences for specific tasks of limited duration 6. Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, in the case of manufacturer flights, Member States may accept a licence issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country for a maximum of 1 year for specific tasks of limited duration, such as training flights for initial entry into service, demonstration, ferry or test flights, provided that applicants comply with the following requirements: (a) hold an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and 259 of 262  (b) are employed, directly or indirectly, by an aircraft manufacturer or by an aviation authority. In this case, the privileges of holders shall be limited to performing flight instruction and testing for the initial issue of type ratings, the supervision of initial line flying by the operators’ pilots, delivery or ferry flights, initial line flying, flight demonstrations or test flights. 7. Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, Member States may, for, competition flights or display flights of limited duration, accept a licence issued by a third country allowing holders to exercise the privileges of a PPL, an SPL or a BPL provided that: (a) prior to the event, the organiser of the competition or display flights provides the competent authority with adequate evidence on how it will ensure that pilots will be familiarised with the relevant safety information and manage any risk associated with the flights; and (b) applicants hold an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention. 8. Notwithstanding the provisions of the paragraphs above, Member States may accept a PPL, an SPL or a BPL issued in compliance with the requirements of Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country for a maximum of 28 days per calendar year for specific non-commercial tasks provided that applicants: (a) hold an appropriate licence and medical certificate and associated ratings or qualifications issued in accordance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention; and (b) have completed at least one acclimatisation flight with a qualified instructor prior to carrying out the specific tasks of limited duration. B. CONVERSION OF LICENCES 1. A PPL, a BPL, an SPL, a CPL or an ATPL issued in compliance with Annex 1 to the Chicago Convention by a third country may be converted into a Part-FCL PPL, BPL or SPL with a single-pilot class or type rating by the competent authority of a Member State. 2. Holders of the licence shall comply with the following minimum requirements, for the relevant aircraft category: (a) pass a written examination in air law and human performance; (b) pass the PPL, BPL or SPL skill test, as relevant, in accordance with Part-FCL; (c) fulfil the requirements for the issue of the relevant class or type rating, in accordance with Subpart H; (d) hold at least a Class 2 medical certificate, issued in accordance with Part-MED; (e) demonstrate that they have acquired language proficiency in accordance with FCL.055; and (f) have completed at least 100 hours of flight time as a pilot. C. ACCEPTANCE OF CLASS AND TYPE RATINGS 1. A valid class or type rating contained in a licence issued by a third country may be inserted in a Part-FCL licence, provided that applicants: 260 of 262 (a) comply with the experience requirements and the prerequisites for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL; (b) pass the relevant skill test for the issue of the applicable type or class rating in accordance with Part-FCL; (c) are in current flying practice; and (d) have no less than: (1) for aeroplane class ratings, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that class; (2) for aeroplane type ratings, 500 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type; (3) for single-engine helicopters with a maximum certificated take-off mass of up to 3 175 kg, 100 hours of flight experience as a pilot in that type; and (4) for all other helicopters, 350 hours of flight experience as a pilot on that type. 261 of 262  ANNEX II to draft Commission Regulation (EU) …/… of XXX amending Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 as regards a revision of the Annexes I, II and III as well as the introduction of loss of control prevention and recovery training 1. Annex VI to Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 is amended as follows: (1) In point (b)(2) of ARA.FCL.300, the term ‘multiple choice’ is deleted. ‘(2) Questions for an examination shall be selected by the competent authority, according to a common method which allows coverage of the entire syllabus in each subject, from the European Central Question Bank (ECQB). The ECQB is a database of multiple choice questions held by the Agency.’ 262 of 262